A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to undergo a thoracentesis. Which intervention would the nurse complete prior to the procedure? The nurse assesses the client after a thoracentesis. Which assessment finding warrants immediate action? You should have 2 responses for this question: 1 for Intervention and 1 for Assessment.
Assessment: The trachea is shifted away from the midline of the neck.
Assessment: Pulse oximetry is 93% on 2 L of oxygen.
Assessment: The client rates pain as 8/10 at the site of the procedure.
Intervention: Request an order for pain medication.
Intervention: Measure oxygen saturation before and after a 12-minute walk.
Intervention: Explain the procedure in detail to the client and the family.
Intervention: Assist the client to the bathroom.
Intervention: Discuss all possible complications with the client.
Assessment: A small amount of drainage from the site is noted.
Intervention: Validate that informed consent has been given by the client.
Correct Answer : A,J
Intervention: Validate that informed consent has been given by the client.
Reason: Before any invasive procedure, it is crucial to ensure that the client has given informed consent. This means the client understands the procedure, its risks, benefits, and any potential complications. Validating informed consent is a legal and ethical requirement that ensures the client is making an informed decision about their care12.
Assessment: The trachea is shifted away from the midline of the neck.
Reason: A tracheal shift is a critical finding that warrants immediate action. It can indicate a tension pneumothorax, which is a life-threatening condition where air accumulates in the pleural space and causes the lung to collapse. This shift can compromise respiratory function and requires urgent intervention34.
Choice B: Pulse oximetry is 93% on 2 L of oxygen.
Reason: While a pulse oximetry reading of 93% on 2 liters of oxygen is slightly below the normal range (95-100%), it is not immediately life-threatening. However, it does indicate that the client may need further evaluation and monitoring to ensure adequate oxygenation.
Choice C: The client rates pain as 8/10 at the site of the procedure.
Reason: Pain management is important, but an 8/10 pain rating at the procedure site, while significant, does not require immediate action compared to a tracheal shift. Pain can be managed with appropriate analgesics as ordered by the physician.
Choice D: Request an order for pain medication.
Reason: Requesting an order for pain medication is a necessary intervention for managing the client’s pain, but it is not as urgent as addressing a tracheal shift. Pain management should be part of the overall care plan.
Choice E: Measure oxygen saturation before and after a 12-minute walk.
Reason: Measuring oxygen saturation before and after a 12-minute walk is a useful assessment to evaluate the client’s respiratory function and endurance. However, it is not an immediate priority compared to ensuring informed consent and addressing critical findings.
Choice F: Explain the procedure in detail to the client and the family.
Reason: Explaining the procedure in detail to the client and their family is essential for informed consent and reducing anxiety. It ensures that the client understands what to expect and can make an informed decision about their care.
Choice G: Assist the client to the bathroom.
Reason: Assisting the client to the bathroom is a routine nursing intervention that ensures the client’s comfort and dignity. However, it is not a priority compared to addressing critical findings and ensuring informed consent.
Choice H: Discuss all possible complications with the client.
Reason: Discussing all possible complications with the client is part of the informed consent process. It ensures that the client is aware of potential risks and can make an informed decision about their care.
Choice I: A small amount of drainage from the site is noted.
Reason: Noting a small amount of drainage from the site is an important assessment, but it is not as urgent as addressing a tracheal shift. The drainage should be monitored and documented, and any significant changes should be reported to the physician.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest drainage system typically indicates an air leak. This can occur if there is a break in the system, allowing air to enter. The air leak could be from the chest tube insertion site, the tubing, or the drainage system itself. Identifying and correcting the source of the air leak is crucial to ensure the system functions properly and the patient’s condition does not worsen.
Choice B Reason:
A tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition where air accumulates in the pleural space and cannot escape, leading to increased pressure on the lungs and other thoracic structures. While a tension pneumothorax can cause significant respiratory distress, it is not typically indicated by constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Instead, signs of tension pneumothorax include tracheal deviation, hypotension, and severe respiratory distress.
Choice C Reason:
A kink in the tubing of a chest drainage system can obstruct the flow of air and fluid, but it does not cause constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Instead, a kink would likely result in a lack of drainage or intermittent bubbling as the obstruction temporarily blocks and then allows passage of air or fluid.
Choice D Reason:
Increased drainage in a chest tube system indicates that more fluid or air is being removed from the pleural space, but it does not cause constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Increased drainage might be seen in cases of hemothorax or pleural effusion, where large amounts of fluid are present.
Choice E Reason:
Tidaling refers to the normal rise and fall of water in the water seal chamber with the patient’s respiratory cycle. It indicates that the chest tube is patent and functioning correctly. Absence of tidaling could suggest that the lung has fully re-expanded or that there is an obstruction in the system. However, tidaling itself does not cause constant bubbling.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A: Instruct the patient to withhold any medication for diuretic therapy.
Reason: Diuretics can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which can complicate the cardiac catheterization procedure. Withholding diuretics helps to maintain fluid balance and reduce the risk of complications during the procedure
Choice B: Prepare to administer fluids 2 hours before the procedure for patients with renal dysfunction.
Reason: Administering fluids before the procedure helps to prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, especially in patients with renal dysfunction. Hydration helps to flush out the contrast material used during the procedure, reducing the risk of kidney damage.
Choice C: Advise the patient to take all anticoagulants.
Reason: This choice is incorrect. Patients are usually advised to withhold anticoagulants before a cardiac catheterization to reduce the risk of bleeding complications. The decision to continue or withhold anticoagulants should be based on a careful assessment of the patient’s risk of thromboembolism versus the risk of bleeding.
Choice D: Administer steroids if the patient has an allergy to iodine-based contrast.
Reason: Administering steroids is a common premedication strategy for patients with a known allergy to iodine-based contrast media. Steroids help to reduce the risk of an allergic reaction during the procedure.
Choice E: Ensure that the patient is NPO for a minimum of 2 hours before the procedure.
Reason: Ensuring that the patient is NPO (nothing by mouth) helps to reduce the risk of aspiration during the procedure. Typically, patients are advised to be NPO for 6-8 hours before the procedure, but a minimum of 2 hours is essential.
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