An acute care nurse receives a shift report for a client who has increased intracranial pressure. The nurse is told that the client demonstrates decorticate posturing. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to observe when assessing the client?
Pronation of the hands.
Extension of the arms.
External rotation of the lower extremities.
Plantar flexion of the legs.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason:
Pronation of the hands.
Pronation of the hands is not typically associated with decorticate posturing. Decorticate posturing is characterized by the flexion of the arms and wrists, with the hands often clenched into fists. Pronation refers to the rotation of the hands so that the palms face downward, which is not a feature of decorticate posturing.
Choice B Reason:
Extension of the arms.
Extension of the arms is more characteristic of decerebrate posturing, not decorticate posturing. In decorticate posturing, the arms are flexed and held tightly to the chest, not extended. This flexion is due to damage to the cerebral hemispheres, which affects the corticospinal tract.
Choice C Reason:
External rotation of the lower extremities.
External rotation of the lower extremities is not a typical finding in decorticate posturing. In decorticate posturing, the legs are usually extended and rigid, with the toes pointed. External rotation would indicate a different type of posturing or neurological condition.
Choice D Reason:
Plantar flexion of the legs.
Plantar flexion of the legs is a characteristic finding in decorticate posturing. This involves the toes pointing downward, which is a result of the increased muscle tone and reflexes due to the brain injury. This posture indicates severe damage to the brain, specifically the corticospinal tract.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
I sleep at least 8 hours each night.
This statement is not concerning because getting adequate sleep is generally a sign of good health. It does not directly relate to symptoms of high blood glucose levels. Therefore, this choice is not relevant to the nurse’s concerns regarding the client’s elevated blood glucose level.
Choice B Reason:
I cannot seem to quench my thirst.
This statement is concerning because excessive thirst, known as polydipsia, is a common symptom of high blood glucose levels or hyperglycemia. When blood glucose levels are elevated, the body tries to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, leading to dehydration and increased thirst. This symptom indicates that the client’s blood glucose levels may be poorly controlled, which requires medical attention.
Choice C Reason:
I have to void nearly every hour.
Frequent urination, or polyuria, is another symptom of high blood glucose levels. When there is too much glucose in the blood, the kidneys work harder to filter and absorb it. When they can’t keep up, the excess glucose is excreted into the urine, pulling fluids from the tissues and causing frequent urination. This symptom is a clear indicator of hyperglycemia and needs to be addressed by the nurse.
Choice D Reason:
At times my vision is blurry.
Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood glucose levels. Elevated glucose levels can cause the lens of the eye to swell, leading to changes in vision. This symptom is concerning because it suggests that the client’s blood glucose levels are affecting their vision, which can be a sign of poorly managed diabetes or other complications.
Choice E Reason:
I have lost 10 pounds without even trying.
Unintentional weight loss is a concerning symptom of high blood glucose levels. When the body cannot use glucose for energy due to insulin resistance or lack of insulin, it starts to break down muscle and fat for energy, leading to weight loss. This symptom indicates that the client’s diabetes may be uncontrolled, and immediate medical intervention is necessary.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: You May Bring Some Music to Listen to for Distraction
Bringing music for distraction is generally not a standard instruction given before an EEG. While listening to music might help some patients relax, it is not a critical part of the preparation for the test. The primary focus of EEG preparation is to ensure accurate readings of brain activity, which can be influenced by various factors such as medication and sleep.
Choice B: Do Not Take Any Sedatives 12 to 24 Hours Before the Test
Avoiding sedatives before an EEG is crucial because these medications can alter brain activity and affect the test results. Sedatives can suppress the electrical activity in the brain, leading to inaccurate readings. Therefore, it is essential for patients to avoid taking any sedatives 12 to 24 hours before the test to ensure the EEG captures the brain’s natural activity.
Choice C: You Will Need to Have Someone to Drive You Home
This instruction is typically given if the patient is expected to be sedated or if the test involves procedures that might impair their ability to drive. However, for a standard EEG, patients are usually not sedated, and there is no need for someone to drive them home. This instruction is more relevant for other types of medical procedures that involve sedation.
Choice D: Please Do Not Have Anything to Eat or Drink After Midnight
Fasting is not a standard requirement for an EEG. Patients are generally allowed to eat and drink before the test. However, they are often advised to avoid caffeine as it can affect brain activity. The instruction to avoid food and drink after midnight is more commonly associated with procedures that require anesthesia or sedation, not an EEG.
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