An adult client who has been experiencing a seizure for approximately 15 minutes is brought to the emergency department by private vehicle. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Administer levetiracetam intravenously.
Obtain a STAT electroencephalogram.
Administer lorazepam intravenously.
Obtain a STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason:
Administering levetiracetam intravenously is not the first intervention. While levetiracetam is an antiepileptic drug used to control seizures, it is not the first-line treatment for an ongoing seizure, especially one lasting as long as 15 minutes. The priority in this situation is to stop the seizure activity immediately to prevent further complications, such as neuronal damage or status epilepticus. Levetiracetam may be used later for maintenance therapy, but it is not the initial emergency intervention.
Choice B Reason:
Obtaining a STAT electroencephalogram (EEG) is important for diagnosing and understanding the type of seizure activity, but it is not the first intervention. The immediate priority is to stop the seizure. An EEG can be performed after the seizure has been controlled to assess brain activity and guide further treatment. Delaying the administration of an anticonvulsant to perform an EEG could result in prolonged seizure activity and increased risk of complications.
Choice C Reason:
Administering lorazepam intravenously is the most appropriate first intervention. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts quickly to stop seizure activity. It is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus and prolonged seizures because of its rapid onset and effectiveness. Administering lorazepam helps to quickly terminate the seizure, reducing the risk of complications and stabilizing the patient for further evaluation and treatment.
Choice D Reason:
Obtaining a STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is not the first intervention. While an ECG can provide valuable information about the patient’s cardiac status, it does not address the immediate need to stop the seizure. The priority is to administer an anticonvulsant to terminate the seizure. Once the seizure is controlled, an ECG can be performed to assess any potential cardiac issues, especially if the patient has a history of cardiac problems or if the seizure was triggered by a cardiac event.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by an elevated pH (greater than 7.45) and an increased bicarbonate (HCO3) level. In this case, the pH is 7.30, indicating acidosis, and the HCO3 level is 18 mEq/L, which is below the normal range (22-26 mEq/L). Therefore, metabolic alkalosis is not the correct diagnosis.
Choice B Reason:
Respiratory alkalosis is indicated by a high pH (greater than 7.45) and a low PaCO2 (less than 35 mm Hg). Although the PaCO2 is low at 28 mm Hg, the pH is 7.30, indicating acidosis rather than alkalosis. Therefore, respiratory alkalosis is not the correct diagnosis.
Choice C Reason:
Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a low pH (less than 7.35) and an elevated PaCO2 (greater than 45 mm Hg). In this case, the pH is low, indicating acidosis, but the PaCO2 is also low at 28 mm Hg, which does not fit the criteria for respiratory acidosis. Therefore, respiratory acidosis is not the correct diagnosis.
Choice D Reason:
Metabolic acidosis is indicated by a low pH (less than 7.35) and a low bicarbonate (HCO3) level (less than 22 mEq/L). In this case, the pH is 7.30, indicating acidosis, and the HCO3 level is 18 mEq/L, which is below the normal range. The low PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg suggests a compensatory respiratory response to the metabolic acidosis. Therefore, metabolic acidosis is the correct diagnosis.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Assess the client’s oxygen saturation and, if normal, turn off the oxygen. This option is not ideal because turning off the oxygen completely can lead to a rapid drop in oxygen saturation levels, especially in patients who require continuous oxygen therapy. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial, but turning off the oxygen is not recommended unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider. Normal oxygen saturation levels typically range from 95% to 100%1. If the levels drop below 90%, it can lead to hypoxemia, which can cause serious complications.
Choice B Reason:
Have the client lift the mask off the face when taking bites of food. This option is also not ideal because it can be cumbersome for the client and may lead to inconsistent oxygen delivery. The Venturi mask is designed to provide a precise concentration of oxygen, and lifting it off repeatedly can disrupt this consistency. Additionally, it can be uncomfortable and impractical for the client to manage the mask while eating.
Choice C Reason:
Turn the oxygen off while the client eats the meal and then restart it. This option is not recommended for similar reasons as Choice A. Turning off the oxygen can lead to a significant drop in oxygen saturation levels, which can be dangerous for the client. Continuous oxygen therapy is essential for maintaining adequate oxygen levels in patients who require it. Interrupting this therapy, even temporarily, can have adverse effects on the client’s health.
Choice D Reason:
Determine if the client can switch to a nasal cannula during the meal. This is the best option because a nasal cannula allows the client to receive continuous oxygen while eating. The nasal cannula is less obtrusive and more comfortable for the client, enabling them to eat without significant interruption to their oxygen therapy. Nasal cannulas are commonly used for patients who need supplemental oxygen but also need to perform activities such as eating and talking. This approach ensures that the client maintains adequate oxygen levels while having their meal.
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