The nurse is monitoring the status of a postoperative client in the immediate postoperative period. The nurse would become most concerned with which sign that could indicate an evolving complication?

A pulse of 86 beats/minute

Hypoactive bowel sounds in all 4 quadrants

Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg

Increasing restlessness

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason:

A pulse of 86 beats per minute is within the normal range for adults (60-100 beats per minute) and does not typically indicate a postoperative complication. While it is important to monitor vital signs, this pulse rate alone is not concerning unless accompanied by other abnormal findings.

Choice B Reason:

Hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants can occur after surgery due to the effects of anesthesia and the surgical procedure itself. While it is important to monitor bowel sounds, hypoactivity is not immediately concerning unless it persists or is accompanied by other symptoms such as abdominal pain or distention. Therefore, this finding alone does not indicate an evolving complication.

Choice C Reason:

A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within the normal range for adults and does not typically indicate a postoperative complication. Blood pressure should be monitored regularly, but this reading alone is not concerning unless there are significant changes or other abnormal findings.

Choice D Reason:

Increasing restlessness is a concerning sign in the immediate postoperative period. It can indicate several potential complications, including pain, hypoxia, or the onset of delirium. Restlessness may also be an early sign of shock or other serious conditions that require prompt intervention. Therefore, this symptom warrants further assessment and immediate attention to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C"]

Explanation

Choice A Reason: High-flow nasal cannula

The high-flow nasal cannula (HFNC) is designed to deliver oxygen at flow rates much higher than 5 liters per minute, typically ranging from 20 to 60 liters per minute. It is used for patients requiring high levels of oxygen and positive airway pressure. Therefore, it is not appropriate for a flow rate of 5 liters per minute.

Choice B Reason: Simple face mask

The simple face mask is suitable for delivering oxygen at flow rates between 6 to 10 liters per minute. However, it can also be used at a flow rate of 5 liters per minute, providing an FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) of approximately 40-60%. This makes it an appropriate choice for the given requirement.

Choice C Reason: Nasal cannula

The nasal cannula is a low-flow oxygen delivery device that can deliver oxygen at flow rates from 1 to 6 liters per minute. At 5 liters per minute, it provides an FiO2 of approximately 40%. It is comfortable for patients and is commonly used for those who need a moderate amount of supplemental oxygen.

Choice D Reason: Non-rebreather mask

The non-rebreather mask is designed to deliver high concentrations of oxygen, typically at flow rates of 10 to 15 liters per minute. It is used in situations where patients need a high FiO2, close to 100%. Therefore, it is not suitable for a flow rate of 5 liters per minute.

Choice E Reason: Venturi mask

The Venturi mask is used to deliver precise oxygen concentrations, typically ranging from 24% to 60% FiO2. It is suitable for patients who require controlled oxygen therapy. While it can be adjusted to deliver oxygen at a flow rate of 5 liters per minute, it is generally used for more specific FiO2 requirements.

A. Assessment: Patient denies vomiting B. ECG: Flattening of QRS complex angle C. ECG: Widening of the QRS complex D. Assessment: Patient consumed 60% of meal E. Assessment: Patient denies nausea F. Assessment: Patient had 2 semi-formed bowel movements 1 hour after administration of the medication G. ECG: Shortening of P wave duration H. Assessment: Patient denies pain I. ECG: Reduction of T wave amplitude

Correct Answer is F

Explanation

Assessment: Patient had 2 semi-formed bowel movements 1 hour after administration of the medication

Choice A Reason:

Assessment: Patient denies vomiting

This choice is not directly related to the effectiveness of Kayexalate. Vomiting can be a symptom of hyperkalemia, but the absence of vomiting does not indicate that the medication is working. Kayexalate works by binding potassium in the intestines and removing it through the stool, so the presence of bowel movements is a more direct indicator of its effectiveness.

Choice B Reason:

ECG: Flattening of QRS complex angle

Flattening of the QRS complex angle is not a typical ECG change associated with hyperkalemia or its treatment. Hyperkalemia typically causes widening of the QRS complex, and effective treatment would normalize this. Therefore, this choice is not correct.

Choice C Reason:

ECG: Widening of the QRS complex

Widening of the QRS complex is a sign of hyperkalemia, not its resolution. If the medication is effective, the QRS complex should return to a normal width. Therefore, this choice is not correct.

Choice D Reason:

Assessment: Patient consumed 60% of meal

While nutritional intake is important, it is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of Kayexalate. The medication’s effectiveness is better assessed by changes in potassium levels and related symptoms, not by meal consumption.

Choice E Reason:

Assessment: Patient denies nausea

Similar to vomiting, nausea can be a symptom of hyperkalemia, but the absence of nausea does not indicate that the medication is working. The effectiveness of Kayexalate is better assessed by the presence of bowel movements and changes in potassium levels.

Choice F Reason:

Assessment: Patient had 2 semi-formed bowel movements 1 hour after administration of the medication

This is the correct answer. Kayexalate works by binding potassium in the intestines and removing it through the stool. The presence of bowel movements indicates that the medication is working to remove potassium from the body. This is a direct and relevant assessment finding.

Choice G Reason:

ECG: Shortening of P wave duration

Shortening of the P wave duration is not a typical ECG change associated with hyperkalemia or its treatment. Therefore, this choice is not correct.

Choice H Reason:

Assessment: Patient denies pain

Pain is not a typical symptom of hyperkalemia, and its absence does not indicate that the medication is working. Therefore, this choice is not correct.

Choice I Reason:

ECG: Reduction of T wave amplitude

Reduction of T wave amplitude can be a sign of hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia. Effective treatment of hyperkalemia would normalize the T wave amplitude, not reduce it. Therefore, this choice is not correct.

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The nurse is monitoring the status of a postoperative client in the immediate postoperative period. The nurse would become most concerned with which sign that could indicate an evolving complication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is ["B","C"]

Explanation

Correct Answer is F

Explanation

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