A nurse is collecting a medication history from a client who is scheduled to have a cardiac catheterization. Which of the following medications taken by the client interacts with contrast material and places the client at risk for acute kidney injury?
Metformin
Carvedilol
Nitroglycerin
Atorvastatin
None
None
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A: Metformin
Reason: Metformin is known to interact with contrast material, particularly iodinated contrast media, and can increase the risk of acute kidney injury (AKI). This interaction can lead to a condition known as contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) or contrast-induced acute kidney injury (CI-AKI). Metformin is primarily excreted by the kidneys, and impaired renal function can lead to its accumulation, increasing the risk of lactic acidosis, a rare but serious complication. Therefore, it is generally recommended to withhold metformin before and after the administration of contrast media until renal function is confirmed to be normal.
Choice B: Carvedilol
Reason: Carvedilol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. It does not have a known interaction with contrast media that would increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Carvedilol primarily affects the cardiovascular system and does not significantly impact renal function or interact with contrast agents.
Choice C: Nitroglycerin
Reason: Nitroglycerin is used to treat angina and other heart conditions by dilating blood vessels. It does not interact with contrast media in a way that would increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Nitroglycerin’s primary effects are on the cardiovascular system, and it does not have nephrotoxic properties.
Choice D: Atorvastatin
Reason: Atorvastatin is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels. While it can have effects on liver enzymes and muscle tissue, it does not interact with contrast media to increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Atorvastatin is metabolized by the liver and does not significantly impact renal function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","G"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Breath sounds diminished on auscultation indicate that there may still be fluid or air in the pleural space, suggesting that the chest tube is still needed to drain the pleural cavity. This is not an appropriate reason to discontinue a chest tube as it indicates ongoing issues that need to be resolved.
Choice B Reason:
Improved respiratory status is a key indicator that the chest tube has successfully resolved the underlying issue, such as a pneumothorax or pleural effusion. When the patient shows signs of stable and improved breathing, it suggests that the chest tube has served its purpose and can be safely removed.
Choice C Reason:
Symmetrical rise and fall of the chest during respiration indicate that both lungs are expanding and contracting normally. This symmetry is a sign that the pleural space is no longer compromised, making it an appropriate reason to remove the chest tube.
Choice D Reason:
Oxygen saturation at least 90% is a general indicator of adequate oxygenation but does not specifically address the condition of the pleural space. While important, it is not a direct reason to discontinue a chest tube without other supporting signs.
Choice E Reason:
Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an ongoing air leak, which means that the chest tube is still necessary to evacuate air from the pleural space. This is not an appropriate reason to remove the chest tube.
Choice F Reason:
An asymmetrical chest on inspiration and expiration suggests that there is still an issue with lung expansion, possibly due to fluid or air in the pleural space. This condition requires the chest tube to remain in place until resolved.
Choice G Reason:
Bilateral breath sounds clear on auscultation indicate that both lungs are free of fluid and air, and are functioning normally. This is a strong indicator that the chest tube has achieved its purpose and can be safely removed.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Decrease protein intake: This is not typically recommended for clients with Cushing’s disease. Protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health. Clients with Cushing’s disease often experience muscle weakness and wasting, so adequate protein intake is crucial to help counteract these effects. Therefore, decreasing protein intake would not be beneficial.
Choice B Reason:
Restrict sodium intake: Clients with Cushing’s disease often suffer from hypertension (high blood pressure) due to the excess cortisol in their bodies. High sodium intake can exacerbate this condition by increasing blood pressure even further. Therefore, it is crucial to restrict sodium intake to help manage hypertension and reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Foods high in sodium include processed foods, canned soups, and salty snacks. The recommended daily sodium intake for most adults is less than 2,300 milligrams, but for those with hypertension, it is often advised to consume even less.
Choice C Reason:
Limit intake of potassium-rich foods: This is not a standard recommendation for clients with Cushing’s disease. In fact, potassium is often beneficial as it can help counteract the effects of sodium and lower blood pressure. Potassium-rich foods include bananas, oranges, spinach, and sweet potatoes. Limiting these foods would not be advantageous and could potentially worsen hypertension.
Choice D Reason:
Increase carbohydrate intake: Increasing carbohydrate intake is not typically recommended for clients with Cushing’s disease. Excess cortisol can lead to increased blood sugar levels and a higher risk of developing diabetes. Therefore, it is important to manage carbohydrate intake carefully to avoid spikes in blood sugar. Instead, a balanced diet with a focus on complex carbohydrates, lean proteins, and healthy fats is recommended.
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