A nurse is teaching a client who is experiencing manifestations of menopause. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

"You should perform 30 minutes of high-impact exercises twice each week."

"You can become pregnant until 1 year passes without a menstrual period."

"You should perform 10 pelvic muscle exercises each day."

"You can use an all-based lubricant if you experience painful vaginal intercourse.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

High-impact exercises might not be suitable for all clients and could potentially exacerbate symptoms such as joint pain or discomfort.

Choice B rationale:

Menopause is confirmed after 12 consecutive months without a menstrual period. Until this point, there is still a risk of pregnancy, and contraceptive measures should be used.

Choice C rationale:

Pelvic muscle exercises (Kegel exercises) are important for strengthening pelvic floor muscles but are not specifically related to menopause.

Choice D rationale:

Using a water-based lubricant for painful vaginal intercourse is a helpful suggestion, but it is not the primary focus of menopause education.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A: Expecting heavier menstrual bleeding while using the patch is not a typical instruction given to clients. The patch may actually result in lighter, more regular bleeding.

B: The patch should not be placed on the upper thigh. According to the guidelines, the patch should be applied to clean, dry skin on the belly, buttocks, or back, and can also be placed on the outer part of the upper arm.

C: Applying the first patch within 24 hours of starting the menstrual cycle is correct. This ensures that the patch begins to work in sync with the client's natural cycle, providing immediate contraceptive protection.

D: A new patch should not be applied at the same time each day. Instead, it should be changed once a week on the same day, known as the "patch change day" to maintain consistent contraceptive coverage.

A. Determine if the client is experiencing command hallucinations. B. Arrange for the client to have consistent staff assignments. C. Administer lorazepam to the client. D. Use the client's name when talking to him.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Assessing for the presence of command hallucinations is a priority, as they can pose a risk to the client's safety and the safety of others.

Choice B rationale:

Consistent staff assignments can be important for clients with schizophrenia, but immediate safety concerns should take precedence.

Choice C rationale:

Administering medication is not the priority action unless there is a specific reason to do so based on the assessment.

Choice D rationale:

Using the client's name is respectful and helpful, but it is not the priority action in this scenario.

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A nurse is teaching a client who is experiencing manifestations of menopause. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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