A nurse is teaching a client who is experiencing manifestations of menopause. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
"You should perform 30 minutes of high-impact exercises twice each week."
"You can become pregnant until 1 year passes without a menstrual period."
"You should perform 10 pelvic muscle exercises each day."
"You can use an all-based lubricant if you experience painful vaginal intercourse.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
High-impact exercises might not be suitable for all clients and could potentially exacerbate symptoms such as joint pain or discomfort.
Choice B rationale:
Menopause is confirmed after 12 consecutive months without a menstrual period. Until this point, there is still a risk of pregnancy, and contraceptive measures should be used.
Choice C rationale:
Pelvic muscle exercises (Kegel exercises) are important for strengthening pelvic floor muscles but are not specifically related to menopause.
Choice D rationale:
Using a water-based lubricant for painful vaginal intercourse is a helpful suggestion, but it is not the primary focus of menopause education.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While wearing a supportive bra is generally advisable, wearing it 24 hours a day is not necessary and may cause discomfort.
Choice B rationale:
Performing a breast self-exam 1 week after menstruation is recommended for individuals with fibrocystic breast condition. Hormonal changes during the menstrual cycle can affect breast tissue, and examining the breasts when they are less likely to be affected by hormonal fluctuations can provide a more accurate baseline for self-examination.
Choice C rationale:
Mammograms are recommended more frequently than every 4 years, especially for those with fibrocystic breast condition or other risk factors.
Choice D rationale:
Increasing caffeine intake can exacerbate symptoms of fibrocystic breast condition. Caffeine is known to contribute to breast pain and tenderness.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Phenytoin should be administered slowly to avoid adverse effects. Infusing 800 mg over 5 minutes is too rapid and can lead to cardiovascular complications.
Choice B rationale:
Rationale: After administering phenytoin via IV, it's important to flush the IV line with normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) to ensure the medication is fully delivered to the client and to prevent any residual medication from precipitating in the IV line.
Choice C rationale:
Flushing with heparin is not standard practice for administering phenytoin.
Choice D rationale:
Phenytoin should be administered in normal saline, not in D5W (dextrose 5% in water), to avoid precipitation.
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