A nurse is teaching a client who is experiencing manifestations of menopause. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
"You should perform 30 minutes of high-impact exercises twice each week."
"You can become pregnant until 1 year passes without a menstrual period."
"You should perform 10 pelvic muscle exercises each day."
"You can use an all-based lubricant if you experience painful vaginal intercourse.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
High-impact exercises might not be suitable for all clients and could potentially exacerbate symptoms such as joint pain or discomfort.
Choice B rationale:
Menopause is confirmed after 12 consecutive months without a menstrual period. Until this point, there is still a risk of pregnancy, and contraceptive measures should be used.
Choice C rationale:
Pelvic muscle exercises (Kegel exercises) are important for strengthening pelvic floor muscles but are not specifically related to menopause.
Choice D rationale:
Using a water-based lubricant for painful vaginal intercourse is a helpful suggestion, but it is not the primary focus of menopause education.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Melanoma often originates from an existing mole or can develop as a new pigmented lesion on the skin.
Choice B rationale:
Melanoma lesions are typically asymmetrical, not symmetrical.
Choice C rationale:
Metastasis of melanoma is not rare and can occur if the disease is not diagnosed and treated early.
Choice D rationale:
Melanoma has multiple growth phases, including radial and vertical growth.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A blood pressure of 78/60 mm Hg is indicative of hypotension which is a common complication of anorexia nervosa. However. the low body temperature takes precedence
Choice B rationale:
Weight loss of 20% over the last 6 months is concerning but may not be an immediate indicator for acute care admission.
Choice C rationale:
An apical pulse rate of 50/min is bradycardia, which can be a result of anorexia nervosa, but it may not be an immediate indicator for acute care admission unless the client is symptomatic.
Choice D rationale:
A body temperature of 35.5°C (95.9°F) is below a normal range signfyng hypothermia which needs immedate intervention.
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