A nurse is teaching a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following statements should the nurse include regarding this congenital heart defect?
"You will receive terbutaline if you experience preterm labor."
"You will be encouraged to receive epidural anesthesia during labor."
"You will be placed in a supine position during labor."
"You have an increased risk of developing preeclampsia."
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication used to inhibit uterine contractions and is not directly related to managing coarctation of the aorta.
Choice B rationale:
Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by narrowing of the aorta, which can lead to increased pressure and decreased blood flow to the lower part of the body. During labor, epidural anesthesia is often recommended for clients with coarctation of the aorta to reduce stress and pain, as well as to maintain stable blood pressure.
Choice C rationale:
Placing a client with coarctation of the aorta in a supine position during labor can worsen the obstruction of blood flow and is contraindicated. Left lateral positioning or other positions that enhance venous return are preferred.
Choice D rationale:
There is no established increased risk of preeclampsia in clients with coarctation of the aorta.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Donepezil is a cholinesterase inhibitor that is commonly prescribed for individuals with Alzheimer's disease. It helps increase the levels of acetylcholine in the brain, which can temporarily improve cognitive function and slow the progression of cognitive decline in some individuals with Alzheimer's disease.
Choice B rationale: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine medication used to treat anxiety and alcohol withdrawal symptoms. It is not indicated for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease and is not recommended due to its potential to cause sedation and cognitive impairment.
Choice C rationale: Naltrexone is an opioid receptor antagonist primarily used to treat opioid and alcohol dependence. It is not indicated for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease.
Choice D rationale: Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist used to treat opioid dependence and moderate to severe pain. It is not indicated for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Agitation is a common manifestation of delirium, as the client experiences a disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. The client may become restless, irritable, or aggressive due to the altered mental state.
Choice B rationale:
Slow, flat speech is not a manifestation of delirium, but rather a sign of depression or dementia. Clients with delirium may have rapid, incoherent, or slurred speech, depending on the cause and severity of the condition.
Choice C rationale:
Visual hallucinations are another manifestation of delirium, as the client may perceive things that are not there or misinterpret sensory stimuli. The client may also have auditory or tactile hallucinations, which can contribute to the agitation and confusion.
Choice D rationale:
Confusion is a hallmark manifestation of delirium, as the client has difficulty with orientation, memory, and reasoning. The client may not recognize familiar people or places, or may have fluctuating levels of consciousness. The confusion may worsen at night or in low-light settings, which is known as sundowning syndrome.
Choice E rationale:
Rapid mood swings are also a manifestation of delirium, as the client may exhibit emotional lability, anxiety, depression, fear, or anger. The mood changes may be unpredictable and inappropriate to the situation.
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