A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide for management of hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Reduce intake of potassium-rich foods.
Avoid grapefruit juice.
Take this medication before bedtime.
Monitor for leg cramps.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Reducing intake of potassium-rich foods is not necessary for clients taking hydrochlorothiazide, as this medication can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Clients may need to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods or take potassium supplements to prevent hypokalemia.
Choice B reason: Avoiding grapefruit juice is not necessary for clients taking hydrochlorothiazide, as this medication does not interact with grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can affect the metabolism of some other medications, such as statins, calcium channel blockers, and cyclosporine, by inhibiting the enzyme CYP3A4 in the liver.
Choice C reason: Taking this medication before bedtime is not advisable for clients taking hydrochlorothiazide, as this medication can cause increased urination and nocturia (nighttime urination). Clients should take this medication in the morning or at least 6 hours before bedtime to avoid disrupting their sleep.
Choice D reason: Monitoring for leg cramps is an important instruction for clients taking hydrochlorothiazide, as this medication can cause muscle cramps due to electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia, hyponatremia (low sodium levels), or hypomagnesemia (low magnesium levels). Clients should report any signs of muscle cramps, weakness, or fatigue to their provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Vomiting is not a specific sign of a hemolytic reaction, as it can be caused by many other factors, such as anesthesia, infection, or medication. Vomiting may occur in other types of transfusion reactions, such as allergic or febrile reactions, but it is not indicative of hemolysis.
Choice B reason: Flushing is not a specific sign of a hemolytic reaction, as it can be caused by many other factors, such as fever, infection, or medication. Flushing may occur in other types of transfusion reactions, such as allergic or febrile reactions, but it is not indicative of hemolysis.
Choice C reason: Dyspnea is often linked with transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) or transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI). Both of these conditions primarily impact the respiratory system, leading to difficulty breathing. Although respiratory symptoms can accompany severe reactions, dyspnea is not a key feature of a hemolytic reaction.
Choice D reason: Hypotension is a significant indicator of an acute hemolytic reaction. When the recipient’s immune system attacks the donor red blood cells, widespread inflammatory and immune responses occur, leading to vascular collapse. This can manifest as sudden low blood pressure, which is life-threatening if not recognized and treated immediately. Alongside other findings such as fever, chills, flank pain, and hemoglobinuria, hypotension is a classic hallmark of hemolysis during transfusion.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because aspirin is not a suitable medication for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that has antiplatelet and analgesic effects, but it is not as effective as anticoagulants for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because alteplase is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for treating it. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves existing blood clots by activating plasminogen. It is used for acute ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, and massive pulmonary embolism, but it has a high risk of bleeding and is contraindicated in clients who have had recent surgery.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because clopidogrel is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for preventing arterial thrombosis. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. It is used for clients who have had acute coronary syndrome, percutaneous coronary intervention, or ischemic stroke, but it is not effective for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice D reason: This is correct because enoxaparin is a medication for preventing VTE in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that inhibits factor Xa and thrombin, preventing the formation of fibrin. It is administered subcutaneously once or twice daily and does not require routine laboratory monitoring. It has a lower risk of bleeding and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) than unfractionated heparin.
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