A nurse is preparing to administer heparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Inject the medication into the abdomen above the level of the iliac crest.

Massage the injection site after administration of the medication.

Use a 1-inch needle to inject the medication.

Use a 22-gauge needle to inject the medication.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Injecting the medication into the abdomen above the level of the iliac crest is the correct action. This is the preferred site for heparin administration, as it has fewer blood vessels and nerves, and allows for better absorption of the medication. The nurse should avoid the area around the umbilicus, as it may have increased bleeding and bruising.

Choice B reason: Massaging the injection site after administration of the medication is not the correct action. This may cause hematoma formation, tissue irritation, and reduced effectiveness of the medication. The nurse should apply gentle pressure to the injection site for 1 to 2 minutes after administration.

Choice C reason: Using a 1-inch needle to inject the medication is not the correct action. This may cause pain, tissue damage, and bleeding. The nurse should use a 25- to 28-gauge needle that is 3/8 to 5/8 inch long to inject the medication.

Choice D reason: Using a 22-gauge needle to inject the medication is not the correct action. This may cause pain, tissue damage, and bleeding. The nurse should use a 25- to 28-gauge needle that is 3/8 to 5/8 inch long to inject the medication.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Black cohosh is an herbal supplement that is used to treat menopausal symptoms, such as hot flashes and mood swings. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin and does not affect the coagulation status of the client.

Choice B reason: Echinacea is an herbal supplement that is used to boost the immune system and prevent or treat common colds and infections. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin and does not affect the coagulation status of the client.

Choice C reason: Feverfew is an herbal supplement that is used to treat migraines, arthritis, and fever. It has a significant interaction with warfarin and can increase the risk of bleeding and bruising. It can also reduce the effectiveness of warfarin and alter the client's international normalized ratio (INR).

Choice D reason: Flaxseed is an herbal supplement that is used to lower cholesterol, blood pressure, and inflammation. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin and does not affect the coagulation status of the client.

A. The client has a history of hypertension. B. The client has a history of hypothyroidism. C. The client has a history of bronchial asthma. D. The client has a history of migraine headaches.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: The client has a history of hypertension is not the correct answer. Hypertension is a condition in which the blood pressure is abnormally high, usually above 140/90 mmHg. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the blood pressure and reduces the workload of the heart. Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension and angina pectoris, which is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.

Choice B reason: The client has a history of hypothyroidism is not the correct answer. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, which regulate the metabolism and energy levels. Propranolol can mask some of the signs of hypothyroidism, such as tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety. Propranolol can also interfere with the absorption and conversion of thyroid hormones. The nurse should monitor the client's thyroid function tests and report any abnormal values to the provider, but this finding is not a contraindication to the use of propranolol.

Choice C reason: The client has a history of bronchial asthma is the correct answer. Bronchial asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks the beta-1 receptors in the heart and the beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Blocking the beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, which can worsen the symptoms of asthma and trigger an asthma attack. Propranolol is contraindicated in clients who have bronchial asthma, and the nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately.

Choice D reason: The client has a history of migraine headaches is not the correct answer. Migraine headaches are recurrent episodes of severe and throbbing pain, usually on one side of the head, that can be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Propranolol is effective in preventing migraine headaches, as it reduces the frequency and severity of the attacks. Propranolol is indicated for the prophylaxis of migraine headaches, and the nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.

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A nurse is preparing to administer heparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Explanation

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