A nurse in a coronary care unit is admitting a client who has had CPR following a cardiac arrest. The client is receiving lidocaine IV at 2 mg/min. When the client asks the nurse why he is receiving that medication, the nurse should explain that it has which of the following actions?
Prevents dysrhythmias
Relieves pain
Dissolves blood clots
Slows intestinal motility
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic medication that stabilizes the cardiac membrane and suppresses abnormal electrical impulses in the heart. It is used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias, such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation, which can occur after a cardiac arrest.
Choice B reason: Lidocaine is not primarily used to relieve pain, although it has local anesthetic properties. It is not effective for chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia or infarction.
Choice C reason: Lidocaine does not dissolve blood clots, nor does it prevent their formation. It has no anticoagulant or thrombolytic effects.
Choice D reason: Lidocaine does not slow intestinal motility, nor does it affect the gastrointestinal system. It has no antispasmodic or antidiarrheal effects.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Infection is the correct condition that the client is at increased risk for. Agranulocytosis is a severe decrease in the number of granulocytes, which are a type of white blood cell that fight infection. Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid drug that can cause agranulocytosis as a rare but serious side effect. The client with agranulocytosis is more susceptible to bacterial and fungal infections, and may present with fever, sore throat, mouth ulcers, and skin lesions.
Choice B reason: Excessive bleeding is not the correct condition that the client is at increased risk for. Agranulocytosis does not affect the platelets, which are the blood cells that help with clotting. Propylthiouracil does not cause bleeding disorders, although it may interact with anticoagulants and increase their effect.
Choice C reason: Hyperglycemia is not the correct condition that the client is at increased risk for. Agranulocytosis does not affect the insulin, which is the hormone that regulates blood glucose levels. Propylthiouracil does not cause hyperglycemia, although it may interfere with the metabolism of oral hypoglycemic agents and decrease their effect.
Choice D reason: Ecchymosis is not the correct condition that the client is at increased risk for. Ecchymosis is a bruise caused by bleeding under the skin. Agranulocytosis does not cause ecchymosis, as it does not affect the blood vessels or the platelets. Propylthiouracil does not cause ecchymosis, although it may increase the risk of skin rash and pruritus.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: The client has a history of hypertension is not the correct answer. Hypertension is a condition in which the blood pressure is abnormally high, usually above 140/90 mmHg. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the blood pressure and reduces the workload of the heart. Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension and angina pectoris, which is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.
Choice B reason: The client has a history of hypothyroidism is not the correct answer. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, which regulate the metabolism and energy levels. Propranolol can mask some of the signs of hypothyroidism, such as tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety. Propranolol can also interfere with the absorption and conversion of thyroid hormones. The nurse should monitor the client's thyroid function tests and report any abnormal values to the provider, but this finding is not a contraindication to the use of propranolol.
Choice C reason: The client has a history of bronchial asthma is the correct answer. Bronchial asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks the beta-1 receptors in the heart and the beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Blocking the beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, which can worsen the symptoms of asthma and trigger an asthma attack. Propranolol is contraindicated in clients who have bronchial asthma, and the nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately.
Choice D reason: The client has a history of migraine headaches is not the correct answer. Migraine headaches are recurrent episodes of severe and throbbing pain, usually on one side of the head, that can be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Propranolol is effective in preventing migraine headaches, as it reduces the frequency and severity of the attacks. Propranolol is indicated for the prophylaxis of migraine headaches, and the nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.
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