A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive a unit of packed RBCs. The nurse should prime the blood administration tubing using which of the following IV solutions?

Dextrose 5% in 0.45% sodium chloride

0.9% sodium chloride

Lactated Ringer's solution

Dextrose 5% in water

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because dextrose 5% in 0.45% sodium chloride is a hypotonic solution that can cause hemolysis of the RBCs. It can also cause fluid shifts from the intravascular to the intracellular space, leading to edema and hypotension.

Choice B reason: This is correct because 0.9% sodium chloride is a isotonic solution that is compatible with blood products. It does not cause hemolysis or fluid shifts and maintains the osmotic pressure of the blood.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because lactated Ringer's solution is a isotonic solution that contains electrolytes, such as potassium, calcium, and lactate, that can interfere with the blood products. It can also cause metabolic alkalosis due to the conversion of lactate to bicarbonate.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because dextrose 5% in water is a hypotonic solution that can cause hemolysis of the RBCs. It can also cause fluid shifts from the intravascular to the intracellular space, leading to edema and hypotension.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic medication that stabilizes the cardiac membrane and suppresses abnormal electrical impulses in the heart. It is used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias, such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation, which can occur after a cardiac arrest.

Choice B reason: Lidocaine is not primarily used to relieve pain, although it has local anesthetic properties. It is not effective for chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia or infarction.

Choice C reason: Lidocaine does not dissolve blood clots, nor does it prevent their formation. It has no anticoagulant or thrombolytic effects.

Choice D reason: Lidocaine does not slow intestinal motility, nor does it affect the gastrointestinal system. It has no antispasmodic or antidiarrheal effects.

A. Warfarin PO B. Enoxaparin subcutaneous C. Aspirin PO D. Heparin infusion

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Warfarin PO is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a slow onset of action and requires frequent monitoring of the INR (international normalized ratio). Warfarin may be used for long-term anticoagulation, but it is not effective for preventing the formation of new clots.

Choice B reason: Enoxaparin subcutaneous is a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a rapid onset of action and does not require frequent monitoring of the coagulation status. Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin that inhibits the formation of thrombin and prevents the growth of existing clots.

Choice C reason: Aspirin PO is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a weak anticoagulant effect and may increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the aggregation of platelets and prevents the formation of arterial clots, but it is not effective for preventing venous clots.

Choice D reason: Heparin infusion is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it requires continuous intravenous administration and frequent monitoring of the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin is an unfractionated heparin that inhibits the formation of thrombin and prevents the growth of existing clots, but it has a narrow therapeutic window and a high risk of bleeding.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive a unit of packed RBCs. The nurse should prime the blood administration tubing using which of the following IV solutions?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Explanation

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