A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for propranolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following severe reactions to this medication?
Ototoxicity
Hypokalemia
Tachycardia
Postural hypotension
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Ototoxicity is not a severe reaction to propranolol, but it may occur with some other medications, such as aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, or salicylates. Ototoxicity may damage the inner ear or the auditory nerve and cause hearing loss, tinnitus, or vertigo. The nurse should assess the client's medication history and monitor the client's hearing function.
Choice B reason: Hypokalemia is not a severe reaction to propranolol, but it may occur with some other medications, such as thiazide diuretics, corticosteroids, or insulin. Hypokalemia may cause muscle weakness, cramps, arrhythmias, or cardiac arrest. The nurse should advise the client to eat foods rich in potassium, such as bananas, oranges, or potatoes, and to have regular blood tests to check the electrolyte levels.
Choice C reason: Tachycardia is not a severe reaction to propranolol, but it may be a sign of overdose, withdrawal, or rebound effect. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the heart rate and blood pressure by blocking the effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine. Propranolol may cause bradycardia, not tachycardia, as a side effect. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and advise the client to take the medication as prescribed and not to stop it abruptly.
Choice D reason: Postural hypotension is a severe reaction to propranolol, as it may cause dizziness, fainting, or falls. Postural hypotension occurs when the blood pressure drops significantly when the client changes position, such as from lying to sitting or standing. Propranolol may cause postural hypotension by reducing the vascular tone and the cardiac output. The nurse should instruct the client to change position slowly and to report any symptoms of postural hypotension to the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Taking the medication in the morning is not the correct instruction. Simvastatin is a statin drug that lowers cholesterol levels by inhibiting the enzyme that produces cholesterol in the liver. The liver produces more cholesterol at night, so simvastatin is more effective when taken in the evening or at bedtime.
Choice B reason: Avoiding grapefruit juice is the correct instruction. Grapefruit juice can increase the blood levels of simvastatin and cause serious side effects such as muscle damage, liver damage, and kidney failure. Grapefruit juice inhibits the enzyme that metabolizes simvastatin in the intestine, leading to higher concentrations of the drug in the bloodstream.
Choice C reason: Monitoring for ringing in the ears is not the correct instruction. Ringing in the ears, or tinnitus, is not a common or serious side effect of simvastatin. However, some other medications that lower cholesterol, such as niacin and gemfibrozil, can cause tinnitus. The client should report any unusual or persistent symptoms to the prescriber.
Choice D reason: Expecting brown-colored urine is not the correct instruction. Brown-colored urine, or hematuria, is not a normal or expected side effect of simvastatin. However, it may indicate a serious condition such as rhabdomyolysis, which is a rare but life-threatening complication of statin therapy. Rhabdomyolysis is the breakdown of muscle tissue that releases a protein called myoglobin into the bloodstream. Myoglobin can damage the kidneys and cause brown-colored urine. The client should seek immediate medical attention if they notice any signs of rhabdomyolysis, such as muscle pain, weakness, fever, or dark urine.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because aspirin is not a suitable medication for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that has antiplatelet and analgesic effects, but it is not as effective as anticoagulants for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because alteplase is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for treating it. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves existing blood clots by activating plasminogen. It is used for acute ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, and massive pulmonary embolism, but it has a high risk of bleeding and is contraindicated in clients who have had recent surgery.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because clopidogrel is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for preventing arterial thrombosis. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. It is used for clients who have had acute coronary syndrome, percutaneous coronary intervention, or ischemic stroke, but it is not effective for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice D reason: This is correct because enoxaparin is a medication for preventing VTE in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that inhibits factor Xa and thrombin, preventing the formation of fibrin. It is administered subcutaneously once or twice daily and does not require routine laboratory monitoring. It has a lower risk of bleeding and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) than unfractionated heparin.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today