A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for propranolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following severe reactions to this medication?
Ototoxicity
Hypokalemia
Tachycardia
Postural hypotension
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Ototoxicity is not a severe reaction to propranolol, but it may occur with some other medications, such as aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, or salicylates. Ototoxicity may damage the inner ear or the auditory nerve and cause hearing loss, tinnitus, or vertigo. The nurse should assess the client's medication history and monitor the client's hearing function.
Choice B reason: Hypokalemia is not a severe reaction to propranolol, but it may occur with some other medications, such as thiazide diuretics, corticosteroids, or insulin. Hypokalemia may cause muscle weakness, cramps, arrhythmias, or cardiac arrest. The nurse should advise the client to eat foods rich in potassium, such as bananas, oranges, or potatoes, and to have regular blood tests to check the electrolyte levels.
Choice C reason: Tachycardia is not a severe reaction to propranolol, but it may be a sign of overdose, withdrawal, or rebound effect. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the heart rate and blood pressure by blocking the effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine. Propranolol may cause bradycardia, not tachycardia, as a side effect. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and advise the client to take the medication as prescribed and not to stop it abruptly.
Choice D reason: Postural hypotension is a severe reaction to propranolol, as it may cause dizziness, fainting, or falls. Postural hypotension occurs when the blood pressure drops significantly when the client changes position, such as from lying to sitting or standing. Propranolol may cause postural hypotension by reducing the vascular tone and the cardiac output. The nurse should instruct the client to change position slowly and to report any symptoms of postural hypotension to the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Eating a green salad every night with dinner is not the statement that indicates a need for further teaching. This is a consistent and balanced dietary choice for the client, as long as the amount of vitamin K in the salad is not excessive or variable. Vitamin K is a nutrient that helps the blood to clot and can interfere with the action of warfarin, which is an anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of blood clots. The client should avoid sudden changes in their intake of vitamin K and inform the provider of any dietary modifications.
Choice B reason: Taking this medication at the same time each day is not the statement that indicates a need for further teaching. This is a correct and important instruction for the client, as it helps to maintain a steady and effective level of warfarin in the blood. Warfarin has a narrow therapeutic range and requires frequent monitoring and dose adjustment. The client should take the medication as prescribed and avoid missing or skipping doses.
Choice C reason: Starting to take ginger root to treat joint stiffness is the statement that indicates a need for further teaching. This is a risky and potentially harmful herbal supplement for the client, as it can interact with warfarin and increase its anticoagulant effect. Ginger root has antiplatelet and fibrinolytic properties, which can inhibit the formation of blood clots and enhance the breakdown of fibrin, a protein that stabilizes blood clots. Taking ginger root with warfarin can increase the risk of bleeding and bruising and alter the international normalized ratio (INR), which is a measure of the blood's clotting ability. The client should avoid taking ginger root and other herbal supplements without consulting the provider.
Choice D reason: Having the INR checked three weeks ago is not the statement that indicates a need for further teaching. This is a reasonable and appropriate frequency for the client, depending on their stability and response to warfarin therapy. The INR is a blood test that measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and indicates the effectiveness of warfarin. The target INR range for most clients is 2 to 3, but it may vary depending on the indication and the risk of bleeding. The client should have their INR checked regularly and follow the provider's orders and the protocol for dose adjustment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Using IV tubing specific for heparin sodium when administering the infusion is not the correct action. Heparin sodium can be administered using any standard IV tubing, as long as it is primed with heparin solution to prevent clotting in the tubing.
Choice B reason: Administering 50,000 units of heparin by IV bolus every 12 hours is not the correct action. This is a very high dose of heparin that can cause bleeding complications. The usual dose of heparin for continuous IV infusion is 15 to 25 units/kg/hour, adjusted according to the aPTT results.
Choice C reason: Having vitamin K available on the nursing unit is not the correct action. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin. Vitamin K reverses the effects of warfarin by increasing the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver.
Choice D reason: Checking the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) every 4 hours is the correct action. The aPTT is a blood test that measures the time it takes for the blood to clot. It is used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. The therapeutic range of aPTT for heparin is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, or 60 to 80 seconds. The nurse should check the aPTT every 4 hours until it is within the therapeutic range, and then every 6 to 8 hours thereafter. The nurse should adjust the heparin infusion rate according to the aPTT results and the prescriber's orders.
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