A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. The nurse should anticipate which of the following medications for this client?

Aspirin

Alteplase

Clopidogrel

Enoxaparin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because aspirin is not a suitable medication for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that has antiplatelet and analgesic effects, but it is not as effective as anticoagulants for VTE prophylaxis.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because alteplase is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for treating it. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves existing blood clots by activating plasminogen. It is used for acute ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, and massive pulmonary embolism, but it has a high risk of bleeding and is contraindicated in clients who have had recent surgery.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because clopidogrel is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for preventing arterial thrombosis. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. It is used for clients who have had acute coronary syndrome, percutaneous coronary intervention, or ischemic stroke, but it is not effective for VTE prophylaxis.

Choice D reason: This is correct because enoxaparin is a medication for preventing VTE in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that inhibits factor Xa and thrombin, preventing the formation of fibrin. It is administered subcutaneously once or twice daily and does not require routine laboratory monitoring. It has a lower risk of bleeding and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) than unfractionated heparin.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Platelets 190,000/mm3 is within the normal range of 150,000 to 450,000/mm3. This result does not indicate a bleeding risk or a need to adjust the warfarin dose.

Choice B reason: Hct 44% is within the normal range of 37% to 47% for females and 42% to 52% for males. This result does not indicate anemia or polycythemia, which could affect the warfarin therapy.

Choice C reason: PT 45 seconds is above the normal range of 11 to 13.5 seconds. This result indicates that the blood is taking too long to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. The nurse should notify the provider and expect a decrease in the warfarin dose.

Choice D reason: Hgb 16 g/dL is within the normal range of 12 to 16 g/dL for females and 14 to 18 g/dL for males. This result does not indicate anemia or polycythemia, which could affect the warfarin therapy.

A. Vitamin K B. Glucagon C. Protamine D. Iron

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin. Vitamin K reverses the effects of warfarin by increasing the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver.

Choice B reason: Glucagon is the antidote for insulin, not heparin. Glucagon increases the blood glucose level by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver.

Choice C reason: Protamine is the antidote for heparin, not vitamin K or glucagon. Protamine neutralizes the effects of heparin by binding to it and forming a stable complex.

Choice D reason: Iron is not an antidote for any anticoagulant. Iron is a mineral that is essential for the production of hemoglobin and red blood cells.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. The nurse should anticipate which of the following medications for this client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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