A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. The nurse should anticipate which of the following medications for this client?
Aspirin
Alteplase
Clopidogrel
Enoxaparin
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because aspirin is not a suitable medication for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that has antiplatelet and analgesic effects, but it is not as effective as anticoagulants for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because alteplase is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for treating it. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves existing blood clots by activating plasminogen. It is used for acute ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, and massive pulmonary embolism, but it has a high risk of bleeding and is contraindicated in clients who have had recent surgery.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because clopidogrel is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for preventing arterial thrombosis. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. It is used for clients who have had acute coronary syndrome, percutaneous coronary intervention, or ischemic stroke, but it is not effective for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice D reason: This is correct because enoxaparin is a medication for preventing VTE in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that inhibits factor Xa and thrombin, preventing the formation of fibrin. It is administered subcutaneously once or twice daily and does not require routine laboratory monitoring. It has a lower risk of bleeding and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) than unfractionated heparin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Warfarin PO is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a slow onset of action and requires frequent monitoring of the INR (international normalized ratio). Warfarin may be used for long-term anticoagulation, but it is not effective for preventing the formation of new clots.
Choice B reason: Enoxaparin subcutaneous is a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a rapid onset of action and does not require frequent monitoring of the coagulation status. Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin that inhibits the formation of thrombin and prevents the growth of existing clots.
Choice C reason: Aspirin PO is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a weak anticoagulant effect and may increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the aggregation of platelets and prevents the formation of arterial clots, but it is not effective for preventing venous clots.
Choice D reason: Heparin infusion is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it requires continuous intravenous administration and frequent monitoring of the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin is an unfractionated heparin that inhibits the formation of thrombin and prevents the growth of existing clots, but it has a narrow therapeutic window and a high risk of bleeding.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering low dose aspirin is not appropriate for clients with hemophilia A because aspirin can inhibit platelet function and increase the risk of bleeding. Hemophilia A patients already have a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, and adding aspirin can exacerbate bleeding tendencies.
Choice B reason: Preparing for an autologous blood transfusion is not a standard treatment for hemarthrosis in hemophilia A. The primary treatment involves factor replacement therapy to address the underlying clotting deficiency. Blood transfusions are generally reserved for severe cases of anemia or significant blood loss.
Choice C reason: Obtaining a stool specimen is unnecessary because the client’s symptoms are localized to the knee rather than the gastrointestinal tract. This procedure is used to detect GI bleeding and does not address the acute hemarthrosis described. Focusing on a stool sample would delay the essential care needed to stop the joint hemorrhage. Priority must be placed on interventions that directly manage the active bleeding site.
Choice D reason: Applying ice to the knee triggers vasoconstriction, which directly limits internal bleeding into the joint space. This action follows the RICE protocol to reduce inflammation and provide immediate pain relief. By cooling the area, the nurse helps stabilize the injury and prevents further swelling. It is a vital step in minimizing long-term damage to the joint's synovial tissue.
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