A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypertension and a new prescription for propranolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication for taking propranolol?
Glaucoma
Irritable bowel syndrome
Asthma
Migraine headaches
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Asthma.
Choice A rationale:
Glaucoma is not a contraindication for propranolol. Beta-blockers like propranolol can actually be used to manage glaucoma by reducing intraocular pressure.
Choice B rationale:
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is not a contraindication for propranolol. There is no direct interaction between propranolol and IBS that would prevent its use.
Choice C rationale:
Asthma is a contraindication for propranolol. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker, which means it can block beta-2 receptors in the lungs, leading to bronchoconstriction and potentially severe asthma exacerbations.
Choice D rationale:
Migraine headaches are not a contraindication for propranolol. In fact, propranolol is often prescribed as a preventive treatment for migraines.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D, "I should adjust the TENS unit until I feel a tingling sensation." This is an appropriate statement that indicates the client understands how to use the TENS unit. The TENS unit works by sending electrical impulses to the nerves to block pain signals. The client should adjust the unit until they feel a tingling sensation, which is the desired effect.
"The TENS unit administers a continuous dose of pain medication" is not the correct answer because the TENS unit does not administer medication.
"I will need to charge the TENS unit for 2 hours each day" is not the correct answer because the TENS unit is battery operated and does not need to be charged.
"The TENS unit should be applied at least 6 inches from the actual site of my pain" is not the correct answer because the electrodes should be placed directly on the site of the pain.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Answer is: d. Reposition the client.
Explanation: Repositioning the client can help alleviate pain by redistributing pressure and promoting comfort. Since the client's pain level is relatively low (2 on a scale of 0 to 10), this non-pharmacological intervention is an appropriate initial action.
Choice a. is wrong because maintaining the client on bed rest is not an appropriate action for a pain level of 2. Instead, the nurse should encourage the client to mobilize and perform appropriate exercises to prevent complications related to immobility.
Choice b. is wrong because applying a warm, moist compress to the incision area might not be the best action for a client who is 24 hours postoperative, as it could increase the risk of infection and cause discomfort. Cold compresses are often used in the initial postoperative period to reduce swelling and promote comfort.
Choice c. is wrong because administering an additional dose of pain medication is not necessary at this point, as the client's pain level is relatively low. The nurse should consider non-pharmacological interventions first and reassess the client's pain level to determine the need for further pain relief.
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