A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who took 3 nitroglycerin tablets sublingually for chest pain. The client reports relief from the chest pain but now he is experiencing a headache. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"A headache is an indication of an allergy to the medication."
"A headache indicates tolerance to the medication."
"A headache is likely due to the anxiety about the chest pain."
"A headache is an expected adverse effect of the medication."
The Correct Answer is D
A headache is a common and expected adverse effect of nitroglycerin, due to its vasodilating action. The client can take an over-the-counter analgesic to relieve the headache, unless contraindicated.
"A headache is an indication of an allergy to the medication." is not correct, as a headache is not a sign of an allergic reaction to nitroglycerin. An allergic reaction would manifest as rash, itching, swelling, or difficulty breathing.
"A headache indicates tolerance to the medication." is not accurate, as a headache does not indicate tolerance to nitroglycerin. Tolerance would manifest as reduced or absent relief from anginal pain.
"A headache is likely due to the anxiety about the chest pain." is not plausible, as a headache is not likely due to the anxiety about the chest pain. Anxiety would manifest as nervousness, restlessness, palpitations, or sweating.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Administering an anticholinesterase medication is not the primary intervention during a myasthenic crisis. While these medications can improve muscle strength in myasthenia gravis, they are not sufficient in the event of a crisis.
Choice B reason:
Pursed lip breathing is a technique used to manage dyspnea but is not adequate for the acute management of a myasthenic crisis, which can involve respiratory muscle paralysis.
Choice C reason:
Vasoconstrictors are not used in the treatment of myasthenic crisis. This condition is not related to vascular issues but to neuromuscular transmission failure leading to respiratory failure.
Choice D reason:
Mechanical ventilation is the correct intervention as it provides the necessary respiratory support when the patient's respiratory muscles are too weak to maintain adequate ventilation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Hemorrhagic stroke is a type of stroke that occurs when a blood vessel ruptures in the brain, causing bleeding and increased intracranial pressure. The client's symptoms of sudden, severe headache, vomiting, seizure, and
unresponsiveness are consistent with hemorrhagic stroke. The client's elevated blood pressure and temperature are also risk factors for hemorrhagic stroke.
Thrombotic stroke is a type of stroke that occurs when a blood clot forms in an artery that supplies blood to the brain, causing ischemia and tissue damage. The client's symptoms are not typical of thrombotic stroke, which usually has a gradual onset and affects one side of the body.
Transient ischemic atack (TIA) is a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain, causing neurologic deficits that resolve within 24 hours. The client's symptoms are not indicative of TIA, which does not cause loss of consciousness or permanent brain damage.
Embolic stroke is a type of stroke that occurs when a blood clot or other debris travels from another part of the body to the brain, causing occlusion and ischemia. The client's symptoms are not characteristic of embolic stroke, which usually has a sudden onset and affects one side of the body.
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