A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who took 3 nitroglycerin tablets sublingually for chest pain. The client reports relief from the chest pain but now he is experiencing a headache. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"A headache is an indication of an allergy to the medication."
"A headache indicates tolerance to the medication."
"A headache is likely due to the anxiety about the chest pain."
"A headache is an expected adverse effect of the medication."
The Correct Answer is D
A headache is a common and expected adverse effect of nitroglycerin, due to its vasodilating action. The client can take an over-the-counter analgesic to relieve the headache, unless contraindicated.
"A headache is an indication of an allergy to the medication." is not correct, as a headache is not a sign of an allergic reaction to nitroglycerin. An allergic reaction would manifest as rash, itching, swelling, or difficulty breathing.
"A headache indicates tolerance to the medication." is not accurate, as a headache does not indicate tolerance to nitroglycerin. Tolerance would manifest as reduced or absent relief from anginal pain.
"A headache is likely due to the anxiety about the chest pain." is not plausible, as a headache is not likely due to the anxiety about the chest pain. Anxiety would manifest as nervousness, restlessness, palpitations, or sweating.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Frothy sputum is a sign of left-sided heart failure, due to the pulmonary congestion and impaired gas exchange. The sputum may be pink-tinged or blood-streaked, indicating pulmonary edema.
a. Dependent edema is more likely to be seen in clients who have right-sided heart failure, due to the increased venous pressure and fluid retention. The edema is usually symmetrical and affects the lower extremities, abdomen, and sometimes the face.
c. Nocturnal polyuria is not a specific finding of left-sided heart failure, but it may occur in clients who have renal impairment, diabetes mellitus, or diuretic therapy.
d. Jugular distention is another sign of right-sided heart failure, due to the increased central venous pressure and backward flow of blood into the superior vena cava. It is visible as a bulging of the neck veins, especially when the client is in a semi-Fowler's position.
Correct Answer is ["8"]
Explanation
To calculate the volume to administer, the nurse should use the following formula:
Volume (mL) = Dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL) x 1000
Plugging in the given values, the nurse should get:
Volume (mL) = 400 mg / 250 mg/5 mL x 1000
Volume (mL) = 8 mL
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest whole number and use a leading zero if it applies. Therefore, the nurse should administer 8 mL of valproic acid per dose.
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