A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following an appendectomy.
Vital Signs 1800:
Temperature 98.4° F (36.8° C) Heart rate 104/min
Respiratory rate 22/min
Blood pressure 142/80 mm Hg O2 saturation 97% on room air 1800:
Client alert and oriented x 4
Skin warm and dry
Lungs clear on auscultation
Bowel sounds hypoactive in all four quadrants Urine clear yellow
Incisional dressing clean and dry
Client reports pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
1815:
Morphine administered as prescribed
2000:
Temperature 98.4° F (36.8° C) Heart rate 110/min Respiratory rate 24/min
Blood pressure 158/88 mm Hg O2 saturation 93% on room air.
Which of the following 4 client findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Bowel sounds
Oxygen saturation
Nausea
Vomiting
Pain level
Heart rate
Incision characteristics
Lungs sounds
Correct Answer : B,C,E,F
- A. Bowel sounds are hypoactive in all four quadrants, which is expected after an appendectomy due to anesthesia and decreased peristalsis. This is not a finding that needs to be reported to the provider.
- B. Oxygen saturation is 93% on room air, which is below the normal range of 95% to 100%. This could indicate impaired gas exchange, respiratory depression, or infection. This is a finding that needs to be reported to the provider.
- C. Nausea is a common feature of appendicitis and should go away with appendectomy. This finding should, therefore, be reported to the healthcare provider.
- D. Vomiting is also a common side effect of morphine and anesthesia, and can be managed with antiemetics and fluids. This is not a finding that needs to be reported to the provider unless it persists or interferes with oral intake.
- E. Pain level is 6 on a scale of 0 to 10. The client received morphine as prescribed at 1815, and the pain level is still significant. This is a finding that needs to be reported to the provider
- F. Heart rate is 110/min, which is above the normal range of 60 to 100/min. This could indicate pain, anxiety, dehydration, infection, or bleeding. This is a finding that needs to be reported to the provider.
- G. Incision characteristics are clean and dry, which is expected after an appendectomy. However, the nurse should monitor for signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, drainage, or odor. This is a finding that needs to be reported to the provider if any signs of infection are present.
- H. Lungs sounds are clear on auscultation, which is expected after an appendectomy. However, the nurse should encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia. This is a finding that needs to be reported to the provider if any abnormal lung sounds are heard such as crackles, wheezes, or diminished breath sounds.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The provider does not choose a client's healthcare surrogate. Advance directives, including the appointment of a healthcare surrogate, allow individuals to make their own decisions about their medical treatment if they become unable to communicate their wishes. Clients have the right to designate their healthcare surrogate based on their preferences and values. This statement is incorrect as it misrepresents the purpose of advance directives.
Choice B rationale:
A healthcare surrogate does not need to be a family member. The choice of a healthcare surrogate is a personal decision made by the individual. It can be a family member, friend, or any other person whom the individual trusts to make medical decisions on their behalf. There is no requirement that the surrogate must be a family member.
Choice C rationale:
The provider cannot go against the client's wishes regarding advance directives. Advance directives are legally binding documents that outline the individual's preferences for medical treatment, including decisions to withhold or withdraw life-sustaining interventions. Healthcare providers are ethically and legally obligated to respect and follow the directives outlined by the client. Going against the client's wishes would be a violation of their autonomy and legal rights.
Choice D rationale:
The client can resume control of healthcare decisions after a temporary loss of competency if specified in the advance directives. Advance directives often include provisions stating that the individual's decision-making capacity should be
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
a. Improves muscle strength.
Explanation:
Neostigmine is a medication used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis (MG). It belongs to a class of drugs called cholinesterase inhibitors. Neostigmine works by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, a neurotransmiter involved in muscle contraction. In MG, there is a decrease in the amount of acetylcholine available at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue.
By inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, neostigmine helps to increase the concentration of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This, in turn, improves muscle strength and can alleviate the symptoms of weakness and fatigue associated with MG.
Option b, destroying the antibodies that cause MG, is not accurate. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the presence of antibodies that interfere with neuromuscular transmission.
Neostigmine does not directly target or eliminate these antibodies.
Option c, enhancing immune system function, is not accurate either. Neostigmine primarily acts on the neuromuscular junction to improve muscle strength and does not have a direct effect on immune system function.
Option d, preventing excessive coughing, is not the primary action of neostigmine. While increased muscle strength may indirectly improve respiratory function and reduce coughing in individuals with myasthenia gravis, it is not the primary indication or action of neostigmine.
Therefore, the most accurate information to include in teaching about neostigmine for a client with myasthenia gravis is that it improves muscle strength.
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