A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data on a client who has a new prescription for heparin for treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following data should the nurse report to the provider?
Hematocrit 45%
Platelets 74,000/mm3
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 65 seconds
White blood cell count 8,000/mm3
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Hematocrit 45% is not the correct data. Hematocrit is the percentage of red blood cells in the blood. The normal range for hematocrit is 37% to 47% for women and 42% to 52% for men. Hematocrit 45% is within the normal range and does not indicate any abnormality related to heparin therapy. Heparin does not affect the production or destruction of red blood cells.
Choice B reason: Platelets 74,000/mm3 is the correct data. Platelets are the blood cells that are responsible for clotting and preventing bleeding. The normal range for platelets is 150,000 to 400,000/mm3. Platelets 74,000/mm3 is below the normal range and indicates thrombocytopenia, which is a low platelet count. Thrombocytopenia is a serious complication of heparin therapy that can cause bleeding, bruising, and petechiae. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately and stop the heparin infusion.
Choice C reason: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 65 seconds is not the correct data. PTT is a blood test that measures the time it takes for the blood to clot. The normal range for PTT is 25 to 35 seconds. PTT 65 seconds is above the normal range and indicates that the blood is taking longer to clot. This is an expected effect of heparin therapy, as heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of blood clots. The nurse should monitor the PTT and adjust the heparin dose according to the provider's orders and the protocol.
Choice D reason: White blood cell count 8,000/mm3 is not the correct data. White blood cells are the blood cells that are involved in the immune system and fight infections. The normal range for white blood cells is 4,500 to 11,000/mm3. White blood cell count 8,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate any abnormality related to heparin therapy. Heparin does not affect the production or function of white blood cells.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ototoxicity is not a severe reaction to propranolol, but it may occur with some other medications, such as aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, or salicylates. Ototoxicity may damage the inner ear or the auditory nerve and cause hearing loss, tinnitus, or vertigo. The nurse should assess the client's medication history and monitor the client's hearing function.
Choice B reason: Hypokalemia is not a severe reaction to propranolol, but it may occur with some other medications, such as thiazide diuretics, corticosteroids, or insulin. Hypokalemia may cause muscle weakness, cramps, arrhythmias, or cardiac arrest. The nurse should advise the client to eat foods rich in potassium, such as bananas, oranges, or potatoes, and to have regular blood tests to check the electrolyte levels.
Choice C reason: Tachycardia is not a severe reaction to propranolol, but it may be a sign of overdose, withdrawal, or rebound effect. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the heart rate and blood pressure by blocking the effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine. Propranolol may cause bradycardia, not tachycardia, as a side effect. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and advise the client to take the medication as prescribed and not to stop it abruptly.
Choice D reason: Postural hypotension is a severe reaction to propranolol, as it may cause dizziness, fainting, or falls. Postural hypotension occurs when the blood pressure drops significantly when the client changes position, such as from lying to sitting or standing. Propranolol may cause postural hypotension by reducing the vascular tone and the cardiac output. The nurse should instruct the client to change position slowly and to report any symptoms of postural hypotension to the provider.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Applying a new transdermal patch when chest pain is experienced is not a correct instruction, as it may delay the relief of the pain and increase the risk of adverse effects. Transdermal nitroglycerin is a long-acting form of nitrate that is used for the prevention of angina attacks, not for the treatment of acute episodes. The client should use a short-acting form of nitrate, such as sublingual or spray, for the immediate relief of chest pain.
Choice B reason: Applying the transdermal patch in the morning is a correct instruction, as it helps to maintain a steady level of nitrate in the blood throughout the day and prevent angina attacks. Transdermal nitroglycerin has a duration of action of about 12 to 24 hours, depending on the dose and the individual response. The client should apply the patch in the morning and remove it at night, to allow a nitrate-free interval of at least 8 hours and prevent the development of tolerance.
Choice C reason: Applying the transdermal patch in the same location as the previous patch is not a correct instruction, as it may cause skin irritation and reduce the absorption of the medication. Transdermal nitroglycerin should be applied to a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin, preferably on the chest, upper arm, or back. The client should rotate the application sites and avoid areas that are exposed to heat, moisture, or friction.
Choice D reason: Applying a new transdermal patch once a week is not a correct instruction, as it may not provide adequate protection against angina attacks and increase the risk of rebound angina. Transdermal nitroglycerin should be applied daily, with a nitrate-free interval of at least 8 hours, to maintain a therapeutic level of nitrate in the blood and prevent the loss of efficacy. The client should follow the prescribed dosing schedule and consult the provider before making any changes.
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