A nurse is reviewing the health history for a client who has angina pectoris and a prescription for propranolol hydrochloride PO 40 mg twice daily. Which of the following findings in the history should the nurse report to the provider?
The client has a history of hypertension.
The client has a history of hypothyroidism.
The client has a history of bronchial asthma.
The client has a history of migraine headaches.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: The client has a history of hypertension is not the correct answer. Hypertension is a condition in which the blood pressure is abnormally high, usually above 140/90 mmHg. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the blood pressure and reduces the workload of the heart. Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension and angina pectoris, which is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.
Choice B reason: The client has a history of hypothyroidism is not the correct answer. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, which regulate the metabolism and energy levels. Propranolol can mask some of the signs of hypothyroidism, such as tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety. Propranolol can also interfere with the absorption and conversion of thyroid hormones. The nurse should monitor the client's thyroid function tests and report any abnormal values to the provider, but this finding is not a contraindication to the use of propranolol.
Choice C reason: The client has a history of bronchial asthma is the correct answer. Bronchial asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks the beta-1 receptors in the heart and the beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Blocking the beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, which can worsen the symptoms of asthma and trigger an asthma attack. Propranolol is contraindicated in clients who have bronchial asthma, and the nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately.
Choice D reason: The client has a history of migraine headaches is not the correct answer. Migraine headaches are recurrent episodes of severe and throbbing pain, usually on one side of the head, that can be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Propranolol is effective in preventing migraine headaches, as it reduces the frequency and severity of the attacks. Propranolol is indicated for the prophylaxis of migraine headaches, and the nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Infection is the correct condition that the client is at increased risk for. Agranulocytosis is a severe decrease in the number of granulocytes, which are a type of white blood cell that fight infection. Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid drug that can cause agranulocytosis as a rare but serious side effect. The client with agranulocytosis is more susceptible to bacterial and fungal infections, and may present with fever, sore throat, mouth ulcers, and skin lesions.
Choice B reason: Excessive bleeding is not the correct condition that the client is at increased risk for. Agranulocytosis does not affect the platelets, which are the blood cells that help with clotting. Propylthiouracil does not cause bleeding disorders, although it may interact with anticoagulants and increase their effect.
Choice C reason: Hyperglycemia is not the correct condition that the client is at increased risk for. Agranulocytosis does not affect the insulin, which is the hormone that regulates blood glucose levels. Propylthiouracil does not cause hyperglycemia, although it may interfere with the metabolism of oral hypoglycemic agents and decrease their effect.
Choice D reason: Ecchymosis is not the correct condition that the client is at increased risk for. Ecchymosis is a bruise caused by bleeding under the skin. Agranulocytosis does not cause ecchymosis, as it does not affect the blood vessels or the platelets. Propylthiouracil does not cause ecchymosis, although it may increase the risk of skin rash and pruritus.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is: D. Apply heat to the knee.
Choice A reason:
Administering low dose aspirin is not appropriate for clients with hemophilia A because aspirin can inhibit platelet function and increase the risk of bleeding. Hemophilia A patients already have a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, and adding aspirin can exacerbate bleeding tendencies.
Choice B reason:
Preparing for an autologous blood transfusion is not a standard treatment for hemarthrosis in hemophilia A. The primary treatment involves factor replacement therapy to address the underlying clotting deficiency. Blood transfusions are generally reserved for severe cases of anemia or significant blood loss.
Choice C reason:
This action is appropriate to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, which can be a concern in clients with hemophilia due to the risk of spontaneous bleeding. Monitoring for signs of internal bleeding is crucial.
Choice D reason:
Heat application is generally avoided in acute bleeding episodes, as it can increase blood flow and potentially worsen bleeding. Ice is preferred to reduce swelling and pain.
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