A nurse is caring for a client who has hemophilia A and hemarthrosis of the left knee. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Administer low dose aspirin.

Prepare for autologous blood transfusion.

Obtain a stool specimen.

Apply heat to the knee.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The correct answer is: D. Apply heat to the knee.

Choice A reason:

Administering low dose aspirin is not appropriate for clients with hemophilia A because aspirin can inhibit platelet function and increase the risk of bleeding. Hemophilia A patients already have a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, and adding aspirin can exacerbate bleeding tendencies.

Choice B reason:

Preparing for an autologous blood transfusion is not a standard treatment for hemarthrosis in hemophilia A. The primary treatment involves factor replacement therapy to address the underlying clotting deficiency. Blood transfusions are generally reserved for severe cases of anemia or significant blood loss.

Choice C reason:

This action is appropriate to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, which can be a concern in clients with hemophilia due to the risk of spontaneous bleeding. Monitoring for signs of internal bleeding is crucial.

Choice D reason:

Heat application is generally avoided in acute bleeding episodes, as it can increase blood flow and potentially worsen bleeding. Ice is preferred to reduce swelling and pain.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because aspirin is not a suitable medication for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that has antiplatelet and analgesic effects, but it is not as effective as anticoagulants for VTE prophylaxis.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because alteplase is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for treating it. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves existing blood clots by activating plasminogen. It is used for acute ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, and massive pulmonary embolism, but it has a high risk of bleeding and is contraindicated in clients who have had recent surgery.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because clopidogrel is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for preventing arterial thrombosis. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. It is used for clients who have had acute coronary syndrome, percutaneous coronary intervention, or ischemic stroke, but it is not effective for VTE prophylaxis.

Choice D reason: This is correct because enoxaparin is a medication for preventing VTE in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that inhibits factor Xa and thrombin, preventing the formation of fibrin. It is administered subcutaneously once or twice daily and does not require routine laboratory monitoring. It has a lower risk of bleeding and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) than unfractionated heparin.

A. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin might cause extravasation. B. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin might produce red tinged urine and sweat. C. An excess amount of doxorubicin can lead to cardiomyopathy. D. An excess amount of doxorubicin can lead to myelosuppression.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because extravasation is not related to the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin, but to the leakage of the medication from the vein into the surrounding tissue. Extravasation can cause severe tissue damage and necrosis, and should be prevented by using a central venous catheter and monitoring the infusion site.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because red tinged urine and sweat are not related to the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin, but to the normal excretion of the medication from the body. Red tinged urine and sweat are expected side effects of doxorubicin and do not indicate toxicity or harm.

Choice C reason: This is correct because an excess amount of doxorubicin can lead to cardiomyopathy, which is a serious and potentially fatal complication of the medication. Cardiomyopathy is a condition in which the heart muscle becomes weak and unable to pump blood effectively. The risk of cardiomyopathy increases with the cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin, which should not exceed 450 to 550 mg/m2.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because myelosuppression is not related to the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin, but to the dose-dependent effect of the medication on the bone marrow. Myelosuppression is a condition in which the production of blood cells is reduced, leading to anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Myelosuppression can be managed by adjusting the dose and frequency of doxorubicin and monitoring the blood counts.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has hemophilia A and hemarthrosis of the left knee. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

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Explanation

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