A nurse is caring for a client who is on warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. The client's INR is 5.2. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

Choice A reason: Removing the patch for 10 to 12 hours daily is a correct instruction. This allows the client to have a nitrate-free period, which prevents the development of tolerance to the medication. Tolerance reduces the effectiveness of nitroglycerin in relieving anginal pain. The client should remove the patch at night, when the risk of angina is lower, and apply a new patch in the morning.

Choice B reason: Applying the patch to a hairless area and rotating sites is a correct instruction. This prevents skin irritation and enhances absorption of the medication. The client should avoid applying the patch to areas that are exposed to heat, sunlight, or friction, as these factors can increase the release of nitroglycerin and cause hypotension.

Choice C reason: Applying a new patch at the onset of anginal pain is not a correct instruction. Transdermal nitroglycerin is used for the prevention, not the treatment, of anginal attacks. The onset of action of transdermal nitroglycerin is slow, and it may take several hours to reach peak effect. The client should use sublingual nitroglycerin, which has a rapid onset of action, to treat acute anginal pain.

Choice D reason: Applying a new patch each morning is a correct instruction. This ensures that the client has a steady and adequate supply of nitroglycerin throughout the day, when the risk of angina is higher. The client should apply the patch to a different site each day, and remove the old patch before applying the new one.

Choice E reason: Applying the patch to dry skin and covering the area with plastic wrap is not a correct instruction. This can cause skin maceration, which is the softening and breaking down of the skin due to moisture. This can increase the risk of infection and reduce the absorption of the medication. The client should apply the patch to clean and dry skin, and avoid covering the area with any dressing or tape.

Choice A reason: Ototoxicity is not a severe reaction to propranolol, but it may occur with some other medications, such as aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, or salicylates. Ototoxicity may damage the inner ear or the auditory nerve and cause hearing loss, tinnitus, or vertigo. The nurse should assess the client's medication history and monitor the client's hearing function.

Choice B reason: Hypokalemia is not a severe reaction to propranolol, but it may occur with some other medications, such as thiazide diuretics, corticosteroids, or insulin. Hypokalemia may cause muscle weakness, cramps, arrhythmias, or cardiac arrest. The nurse should advise the client to eat foods rich in potassium, such as bananas, oranges, or potatoes, and to have regular blood tests to check the electrolyte levels.

Choice C reason: Tachycardia is not a severe reaction to propranolol, but it may be a sign of overdose, withdrawal, or rebound effect. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the heart rate and blood pressure by blocking the effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine. Propranolol may cause bradycardia, not tachycardia, as a side effect. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and advise the client to take the medication as prescribed and not to stop it abruptly.

Choice D reason: Postural hypotension is a severe reaction to propranolol, as it may cause dizziness, fainting, or falls. Postural hypotension occurs when the blood pressure drops significantly when the client changes position, such as from lying to sitting or standing. Propranolol may cause postural hypotension by reducing the vascular tone and the cardiac output. The nurse should instruct the client to change position slowly and to report any symptoms of postural hypotension to the provider.