A nurse is assessing a client prior to administering atenolol. Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to withhold the medication?
Blood pressure 160/94 mm Hg
Heart rate 46/min
Oxygen saturation 95%
Respiratory rate 18/min
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Blood pressure 160/94 mm Hg is not a reason to withhold atenolol, as it is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure and reduces the workload of the heart. Atenolol is indicated for hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. The nurse should administer atenolol as prescribed, unless the blood pressure is too low (hypotension).
Choice B reason: Heart rate 46/min is a reason to withhold atenolol, as it is a sign of bradycardia (slow heart rate), which can be a side effect of atenolol. Atenolol can decrease the heart rate by blocking the beta-1 receptors in the heart. The nurse should withhold atenolol if the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute or above 100 beats per minute, and report the finding to the provider.
Choice C reason: Oxygen saturation 95% is not a reason to withhold atenolol, as it is a normal value that indicates adequate oxygenation of the blood. Atenolol does not affect the oxygen saturation or the respiratory function. The nurse should monitor the oxygen saturation regularly, and report any signs of hypoxia (low oxygen level).
Choice D reason: Respiratory rate 18/min is not a reason to withhold atenolol, as it is a normal value that indicates normal breathing. Atenolol does not affect the respiratory rate or the respiratory function. The nurse should monitor the respiratory rate regularly, and report any signs of dyspnea (difficulty breathing).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin. Vitamin K reverses the effects of warfarin by increasing the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver.
Choice B reason: Glucagon is the antidote for insulin, not heparin. Glucagon increases the blood glucose level by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver.
Choice C reason: Protamine is the antidote for heparin, not vitamin K or glucagon. Protamine neutralizes the effects of heparin by binding to it and forming a stable complex.

Choice D reason: Iron is not an antidote for any anticoagulant. Iron is a mineral that is essential for the production of hemoglobin and red blood cells.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is: d. The client uses garlic to lower cholesterol levels.
Choice A: The client follows a low-fat diet to reduce cholesterol
Following a low-fat diet to reduce cholesterol does not have a significant impact on the effects of warfarin. While diet can influence overall health and cholesterol levels, it does not directly interact with warfarin’s anticoagulant properties.
Choice B: The client drinks a glass of grapefruit juice every day
Grapefruit juice is known to interact with various medications by inhibiting the cytochrome P450 enzymes, particularly CYP3A4. However, grapefruit juice does not significantly affect warfarin metabolism. It is more commonly associated with interactions with statins and other medications.
Choice C: The client sprinkles flax seeds on food 1 hr before taking the anticoagulant
Flax seeds are rich in omega-3 fatty acids and fiber, which can be beneficial for heart health. However, there is no strong evidence to suggest that flax seeds significantly potentiate the effects of warfarin. They do not have a direct interaction with the anticoagulant properties of warfarin.
Choice D: The client uses garlic to lower cholesterol levels
Garlic is known to have antiplatelet properties, which can enhance the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. This can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Garlic can interfere with the blood clotting process, making it a significant factor to consider when managing a client on warfarin.
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