A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has hypertension and a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
Expect to gain weight while taking this medication.
Do not use salt substitutes while taking this medication.
Count your pulse rate before taking the medication.
Take the medication with food.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Expecting to gain weight while taking this medication is not a correct instruction, as it may discourage the client from adhering to the treatment and may worsen the hypertension. Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that lowers the blood pressure by preventing the formation of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Captopril does not cause significant weight gain, but it may cause fluid retention or edema in some cases. The nurse should advise the client to monitor the weight daily and report any sudden or excessive increase to the provider.
Choice B reason: Not using salt substitutes while taking this medication is a correct instruction, as it may prevent the risk of hyperkalemia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Captopril may increase the potassium level in the blood by reducing the secretion of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates the sodium and potassium balance. Salt substitutes may contain potassium chloride, which may further elevate the potassium level. The nurse should advise the client to avoid salt substitutes and high-potassium foods, such as bananas, oranges, or tomatoes, and to have regular blood tests to check the electrolyte levels.
Choice C reason: Counting the pulse rate before taking the medication is not a necessary instruction, as it may not reflect the effect of the medication on the blood pressure. Captopril does not affect the heart rate significantly, but it may lower the blood pressure too much, especially in the first few weeks of treatment or after a dose increase. This may cause hypotension, dizziness, or fainting. The nurse should advise the client to monitor the blood pressure regularly and report any symptoms of hypotension to the provider.
Choice D reason: Taking the medication with food is not a correct instruction, as it may reduce the absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Captopril should be taken on an empty stomach, at least one hour before or two hours after a meal, to ensure optimal bioavailability. The nurse should advise the client to take the medication at the same time every day and to avoid skipping or doubling the doses.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: The client has a history of hypertension is not the correct answer. Hypertension is a condition in which the blood pressure is abnormally high, usually above 140/90 mmHg. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the blood pressure and reduces the workload of the heart. Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension and angina pectoris, which is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.
Choice B reason: The client has a history of hypothyroidism is not the correct answer. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, which regulate the metabolism and energy levels. Propranolol can mask some of the signs of hypothyroidism, such as tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety. Propranolol can also interfere with the absorption and conversion of thyroid hormones. The nurse should monitor the client's thyroid function tests and report any abnormal values to the provider, but this finding is not a contraindication to the use of propranolol.
Choice C reason: The client has a history of bronchial asthma is the correct answer. Bronchial asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks the beta-1 receptors in the heart and the beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Blocking the beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, which can worsen the symptoms of asthma and trigger an asthma attack. Propranolol is contraindicated in clients who have bronchial asthma, and the nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately.
Choice D reason: The client has a history of migraine headaches is not the correct answer. Migraine headaches are recurrent episodes of severe and throbbing pain, usually on one side of the head, that can be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Propranolol is effective in preventing migraine headaches, as it reduces the frequency and severity of the attacks. Propranolol is indicated for the prophylaxis of migraine headaches, and the nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because aspirin is not a suitable medication for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that has antiplatelet and analgesic effects, but it is not as effective as anticoagulants for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because alteplase is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for treating it. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves existing blood clots by activating plasminogen. It is used for acute ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, and massive pulmonary embolism, but it has a high risk of bleeding and is contraindicated in clients who have had recent surgery.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because clopidogrel is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for preventing arterial thrombosis. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. It is used for clients who have had acute coronary syndrome, percutaneous coronary intervention, or ischemic stroke, but it is not effective for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice D reason: This is correct because enoxaparin is a medication for preventing VTE in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that inhibits factor Xa and thrombin, preventing the formation of fibrin. It is administered subcutaneously once or twice daily and does not require routine laboratory monitoring. It has a lower risk of bleeding and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) than unfractionated heparin.
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