A client who is receiving magnesium sulfate has a urine output of 20 mL/hr. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Naloxone
Protamine
Calcium gluconate
Flumazenil
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Naloxone is not the correct medication. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioid overdose, such as respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension. Naloxone has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is a mineral and electrolyte that is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Choice B reason: Protamine is not the correct medication. Protamine is a heparin antagonist that reverses the effects of heparin overdose, such as bleeding, bruising, and thrombocytopenia. Protamine has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is not an anticoagulant.
Choice C reason: Calcium gluconate is the correct medication. Calcium gluconate is a calcium salt that antagonizes the effects of magnesium sulfate overdose, such as hypotension, bradycardia, respiratory depression, and muscle weakness. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can occur when the serum magnesium level is above 7.5 mEq/L. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, deep tendon reflexes, and urine output, and report any signs of toxicity to the provider.
Choice D reason: Flumazenil is not the correct medication. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that reverses the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, such as drowsiness, confusion, and coma. Flumazenil has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is not a sedative.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Warfarin PO is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a slow onset of action and requires frequent monitoring of the INR (international normalized ratio). Warfarin may be used for long-term anticoagulation, but it is not effective for preventing the formation of new clots.
Choice B reason: Enoxaparin subcutaneous is a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a rapid onset of action and does not require frequent monitoring of the coagulation status. Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin that inhibits the formation of thrombin and prevents the growth of existing clots.
Choice C reason: Aspirin PO is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a weak anticoagulant effect and may increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the aggregation of platelets and prevents the formation of arterial clots, but it is not effective for preventing venous clots.
Choice D reason: Heparin infusion is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it requires continuous intravenous administration and frequent monitoring of the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin is an unfractionated heparin that inhibits the formation of thrombin and prevents the growth of existing clots, but it has a narrow therapeutic window and a high risk of bleeding.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Applying a new transdermal patch when chest pain is experienced is not a correct instruction, as it may delay the relief of the pain and increase the risk of adverse effects. Transdermal nitroglycerin is a long-acting form of nitrate that is used for the prevention of angina attacks, not for the treatment of acute episodes. The client should use a short-acting form of nitrate, such as sublingual or spray, for the immediate relief of chest pain.
Choice B reason: Applying the transdermal patch in the morning is a correct instruction, as it helps to maintain a steady level of nitrate in the blood throughout the day and prevent angina attacks. Transdermal nitroglycerin has a duration of action of about 12 to 24 hours, depending on the dose and the individual response. The client should apply the patch in the morning and remove it at night, to allow a nitrate-free interval of at least 8 hours and prevent the development of tolerance.
Choice C reason: Applying the transdermal patch in the same location as the previous patch is not a correct instruction, as it may cause skin irritation and reduce the absorption of the medication. Transdermal nitroglycerin should be applied to a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin, preferably on the chest, upper arm, or back. The client should rotate the application sites and avoid areas that are exposed to heat, moisture, or friction.
Choice D reason: Applying a new transdermal patch once a week is not a correct instruction, as it may not provide adequate protection against angina attacks and increase the risk of rebound angina. Transdermal nitroglycerin should be applied daily, with a nitrate-free interval of at least 8 hours, to maintain a therapeutic level of nitrate in the blood and prevent the loss of efficacy. The client should follow the prescribed dosing schedule and consult the provider before making any changes.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
