A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for simvastatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

You should take the medication in the morning.

You should avoid grapefruit juice.

You should monitor for ringing in the ears.

You should expect brown-colored urine.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Taking the medication in the morning is not the correct instruction. Simvastatin is a statin drug that lowers cholesterol levels by inhibiting the enzyme that produces cholesterol in the liver. The liver produces more cholesterol at night, so simvastatin is more effective when taken in the evening or at bedtime.

Choice B reason: Avoiding grapefruit juice is the correct instruction. Grapefruit juice can increase the blood levels of simvastatin and cause serious side effects such as muscle damage, liver damage, and kidney failure. Grapefruit juice inhibits the enzyme that metabolizes simvastatin in the intestine, leading to higher concentrations of the drug in the bloodstream.

Choice C reason: Monitoring for ringing in the ears is not the correct instruction. Ringing in the ears, or tinnitus, is not a common or serious side effect of simvastatin. However, some other medications that lower cholesterol, such as niacin and gemfibrozil, can cause tinnitus. The client should report any unusual or persistent symptoms to the prescriber.

Choice D reason: Expecting brown-colored urine is not the correct instruction. Brown-colored urine, or hematuria, is not a normal or expected side effect of simvastatin. However, it may indicate a serious condition such as rhabdomyolysis, which is a rare but life-threatening complication of statin therapy. Rhabdomyolysis is the breakdown of muscle tissue that releases a protein called myoglobin into the bloodstream. Myoglobin can damage the kidneys and cause brown-colored urine. The client should seek immediate medical attention if they notice any signs of rhabdomyolysis, such as muscle pain, weakness, fever, or dark urine.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Removing the patch for 10 to 12 hours daily is a correct instruction. This allows the client to have a nitrate-free period, which prevents the development of tolerance to the medication. Tolerance reduces the effectiveness of nitroglycerin in relieving anginal pain. The client should remove the patch at night, when the risk of angina is lower, and apply a new patch in the morning.

Choice B reason: Applying the patch to a hairless area and rotating sites is a correct instruction. This prevents skin irritation and enhances absorption of the medication. The client should avoid applying the patch to areas that are exposed to heat, sunlight, or friction, as these factors can increase the release of nitroglycerin and cause hypotension.

Choice C reason: Applying a new patch at the onset of anginal pain is not a correct instruction. Transdermal nitroglycerin is used for the prevention, not the treatment, of anginal attacks. The onset of action of transdermal nitroglycerin is slow, and it may take several hours to reach peak effect. The client should use sublingual nitroglycerin, which has a rapid onset of action, to treat acute anginal pain.

Choice D reason: Applying a new patch each morning is a correct instruction. This ensures that the client has a steady and adequate supply of nitroglycerin throughout the day, when the risk of angina is higher. The client should apply the patch to a different site each day, and remove the old patch before applying the new one.

Choice E reason: Applying the patch to dry skin and covering the area with plastic wrap is not a correct instruction. This can cause skin maceration, which is the softening and breaking down of the skin due to moisture. This can increase the risk of infection and reduce the absorption of the medication. The client should apply the patch to clean and dry skin, and avoid covering the area with any dressing or tape.

A. The client has a history of hypertension. B. The client has a history of hypothyroidism. C. The client has a history of bronchial asthma. D. The client has a history of migraine headaches.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: The client has a history of hypertension is not the correct answer. Hypertension is a condition in which the blood pressure is abnormally high, usually above 140/90 mmHg. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the blood pressure and reduces the workload of the heart. Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension and angina pectoris, which is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.

Choice B reason: The client has a history of hypothyroidism is not the correct answer. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, which regulate the metabolism and energy levels. Propranolol can mask some of the signs of hypothyroidism, such as tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety. Propranolol can also interfere with the absorption and conversion of thyroid hormones. The nurse should monitor the client's thyroid function tests and report any abnormal values to the provider, but this finding is not a contraindication to the use of propranolol.

Choice C reason: The client has a history of bronchial asthma is the correct answer. Bronchial asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks the beta-1 receptors in the heart and the beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Blocking the beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, which can worsen the symptoms of asthma and trigger an asthma attack. Propranolol is contraindicated in clients who have bronchial asthma, and the nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately.

Choice D reason: The client has a history of migraine headaches is not the correct answer. Migraine headaches are recurrent episodes of severe and throbbing pain, usually on one side of the head, that can be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Propranolol is effective in preventing migraine headaches, as it reduces the frequency and severity of the attacks. Propranolol is indicated for the prophylaxis of migraine headaches, and the nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.

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A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for simvastatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has stable angina and a new prescription for transdermal nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the health history for a client who has angina pectoris and a prescription for propranolol hydrochloride PO 40 mg twice daily. Which of the following findings in the history should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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