A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for simvastatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
You should take the medication in the morning.
You should avoid grapefruit juice.
You should monitor for ringing in the ears.
You should expect brown-colored urine.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Taking the medication in the morning is not the correct instruction. Simvastatin is a statin drug that lowers cholesterol levels by inhibiting the enzyme that produces cholesterol in the liver. The liver produces more cholesterol at night, so simvastatin is more effective when taken in the evening or at bedtime.
Choice B reason: Avoiding grapefruit juice is the correct instruction. Grapefruit juice can increase the blood levels of simvastatin and cause serious side effects such as muscle damage, liver damage, and kidney failure. Grapefruit juice inhibits the enzyme that metabolizes simvastatin in the intestine, leading to higher concentrations of the drug in the bloodstream.
Choice C reason: Monitoring for ringing in the ears is not the correct instruction. Ringing in the ears, or tinnitus, is not a common or serious side effect of simvastatin. However, some other medications that lower cholesterol, such as niacin and gemfibrozil, can cause tinnitus. The client should report any unusual or persistent symptoms to the prescriber.
Choice D reason: Expecting brown-colored urine is not the correct instruction. Brown-colored urine, or hematuria, is not a normal or expected side effect of simvastatin. However, it may indicate a serious condition such as rhabdomyolysis, which is a rare but life-threatening complication of statin therapy. Rhabdomyolysis is the breakdown of muscle tissue that releases a protein called myoglobin into the bloodstream. Myoglobin can damage the kidneys and cause brown-colored urine. The client should seek immediate medical attention if they notice any signs of rhabdomyolysis, such as muscle pain, weakness, fever, or dark urine.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Injecting the medication into the abdomen above the level of the iliac crest is the correct action. This is the preferred site for heparin administration, as it has fewer blood vessels and nerves, and allows for better absorption of the medication. The nurse should avoid the area around the umbilicus, as it may have increased bleeding and bruising.
Choice B reason: Massaging the injection site after administration of the medication is not the correct action. This may cause hematoma formation, tissue irritation, and reduced effectiveness of the medication. The nurse should apply gentle pressure to the injection site for 1 to 2 minutes after administration.
Choice C reason: Using a 1-inch needle to inject the medication is not the correct action. This may cause pain, tissue damage, and bleeding. The nurse should use a 25- to 28-gauge needle that is 3/8 to 5/8 inch long to inject the medication.
Choice D reason: Using a 22-gauge needle to inject the medication is not the correct action. This may cause pain, tissue damage, and bleeding. The nurse should use a 25- to 28-gauge needle that is 3/8 to 5/8 inch long to inject the medication.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because aspirin is not a suitable medication for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that has antiplatelet and analgesic effects, but it is not as effective as anticoagulants for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because alteplase is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for treating it. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves existing blood clots by activating plasminogen. It is used for acute ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, and massive pulmonary embolism, but it has a high risk of bleeding and is contraindicated in clients who have had recent surgery.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because clopidogrel is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for preventing arterial thrombosis. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. It is used for clients who have had acute coronary syndrome, percutaneous coronary intervention, or ischemic stroke, but it is not effective for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice D reason: This is correct because enoxaparin is a medication for preventing VTE in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that inhibits factor Xa and thrombin, preventing the formation of fibrin. It is administered subcutaneously once or twice daily and does not require routine laboratory monitoring. It has a lower risk of bleeding and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) than unfractionated heparin.
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