A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a unit of packed RBCs following surgery. Which of the following assessments is an indication that the client might be experiencing a hemolytic reaction?

Vomiting

Flushing

Dyspnea

Hypotension

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Vomiting is not a specific sign of a hemolytic reaction, as it can be caused by many other factors, such as anesthesia, infection, or medication. Vomiting may occur in other types of transfusion reactions, such as allergic or febrile reactions, but it is not indicative of hemolysis.

Choice B reason: Flushing is not a specific sign of a hemolytic reaction, as it can be caused by many other factors, such as fever, infection, or medication. Flushing may occur in other types of transfusion reactions, such as allergic or febrile reactions, but it is not indicative of hemolysis.

Choice C reason: Dyspnea is often linked with transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) or transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI). Both of these conditions primarily impact the respiratory system, leading to difficulty breathing. Although respiratory symptoms can accompany severe reactions, dyspnea is not a key feature of a hemolytic reaction.

Choice D reason: Hypotension is a significant indicator of an acute hemolytic reaction. When the recipient’s immune system attacks the donor red blood cells, widespread inflammatory and immune responses occur, leading to vascular collapse. This can manifest as sudden low blood pressure, which is life-threatening if not recognized and treated immediately. Alongside other findings such as fever, chills, flank pain, and hemoglobinuria, hypotension is a classic hallmark of hemolysis during transfusion.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Using IV tubing specific for heparin sodium when administering the infusion is not the correct action. Heparin sodium can be administered using any standard IV tubing, as long as it is primed with heparin solution to prevent clotting in the tubing.

Choice B reason: Administering 50,000 units of heparin by IV bolus every 12 hours is not the correct action. This is a very high dose of heparin that can cause bleeding complications. The usual dose of heparin for continuous IV infusion is 15 to 25 units/kg/hour, adjusted according to the aPTT results.

Choice C reason: Having vitamin K available on the nursing unit is not the correct action. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin. Vitamin K reverses the effects of warfarin by increasing the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver.

Choice D reason: Checking the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) every 4 hours is the correct action. The aPTT is a blood test that measures the time it takes for the blood to clot. It is used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. The therapeutic range of aPTT for heparin is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, or 60 to 80 seconds. The nurse should check the aPTT every 4 hours until it is within the therapeutic range, and then every 6 to 8 hours thereafter. The nurse should adjust the heparin infusion rate according to the aPTT results and the prescriber's orders.

A. Take this medication with 8 ounces of water. B. Take one tablet at the first indication of chest pain. C. Take one tablet every 15 minutes during an acute attack. D. Take this medication after each meal and at bedtime.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Taking this medication with 8 ounces of water is not necessary. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets are designed to dissolve under the tongue and be absorbed quickly into the bloodstream. Drinking water may interfere with the absorption and effectiveness of the medication.

Choice B reason: Taking one tablet at the first indication of chest pain is the correct instruction. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets are used to relieve anginal pain by dilating the coronary arteries and improving blood flow to the heart. The client should place one tablet under the tongue as soon as chest pain occurs and wait for it to dissolve.

Choice C reason: Taking one tablet every 15 minutes during an acute attack is not the correct instruction. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets have a short duration of action and may not provide adequate relief for a prolonged anginal attack. The client should follow the rule of three: take one tablet every 5 minutes for up to three doses. If the pain is not relieved after three doses, the client should call 911 or seek emergency medical attention.

Choice D reason: Taking this medication after each meal and at bedtime is not the correct instruction. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets are not used for the prevention of angina. They are only used for the treatment of acute anginal episodes. Taking this medication regularly may cause tolerance and reduce its effectiveness.

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A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a unit of packed RBCs following surgery. Which of the following assessments is an indication that the client might be experiencing a hemolytic reaction?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is teaching a client who has angina pectoris about starting therapy with sublingual (SL) nitroglycerin tablets. The nurse should include which of the following instructions regarding how to take the medication?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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