A nurse is completing a medical interview with a client who has elevated cholesterol levels and takes warfarin. The nurse should recognize that which of the following actions by the client can potentiate the effects of warfarin?
The client follows a low-fat diet to reduce cholesterol.
The client drinks a glass of grapefruit juice every day.
The client sprinkles flax seeds on food 1 hr before taking the anticoagulant.
The client uses garlic to lower cholesterol levels.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is: d. The client uses garlic to lower cholesterol levels.
Choice A: The client follows a low-fat diet to reduce cholesterol
Following a low-fat diet to reduce cholesterol does not have a significant impact on the effects of warfarin. While diet can influence overall health and cholesterol levels, it does not directly interact with warfarin’s anticoagulant properties.
Choice B: The client drinks a glass of grapefruit juice every day
Grapefruit juice is known to interact with various medications by inhibiting the cytochrome P450 enzymes, particularly CYP3A4. However, grapefruit juice does not significantly affect warfarin metabolism. It is more commonly associated with interactions with statins and other medications.
Choice C: The client sprinkles flax seeds on food 1 hr before taking the anticoagulant
Flax seeds are rich in omega-3 fatty acids and fiber, which can be beneficial for heart health. However, there is no strong evidence to suggest that flax seeds significantly potentiate the effects of warfarin. They do not have a direct interaction with the anticoagulant properties of warfarin.
Choice D: The client uses garlic to lower cholesterol levels
Garlic is known to have antiplatelet properties, which can enhance the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. This can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Garlic can interfere with the blood clotting process, making it a significant factor to consider when managing a client on warfarin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Blood pressure 160/94 mm Hg is not a reason to withhold atenolol, as it is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure and reduces the workload of the heart. Atenolol is indicated for hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. The nurse should administer atenolol as prescribed, unless the blood pressure is too low (hypotension).
Choice B reason: Heart rate 46/min is a reason to withhold atenolol, as it is a sign of bradycardia (slow heart rate), which can be a side effect of atenolol. Atenolol can decrease the heart rate by blocking the beta-1 receptors in the heart. The nurse should withhold atenolol if the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute or above 100 beats per minute, and report the finding to the provider.
Choice C reason: Oxygen saturation 95% is not a reason to withhold atenolol, as it is a normal value that indicates adequate oxygenation of the blood. Atenolol does not affect the oxygen saturation or the respiratory function. The nurse should monitor the oxygen saturation regularly, and report any signs of hypoxia (low oxygen level).
Choice D reason: Respiratory rate 18/min is not a reason to withhold atenolol, as it is a normal value that indicates normal breathing. Atenolol does not affect the respiratory rate or the respiratory function. The nurse should monitor the respiratory rate regularly, and report any signs of dyspnea (difficulty breathing).
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because aspirin is not a suitable medication for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that has antiplatelet and analgesic effects, but it is not as effective as anticoagulants for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because alteplase is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for treating it. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves existing blood clots by activating plasminogen. It is used for acute ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, and massive pulmonary embolism, but it has a high risk of bleeding and is contraindicated in clients who have had recent surgery.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because clopidogrel is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for preventing arterial thrombosis. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. It is used for clients who have had acute coronary syndrome, percutaneous coronary intervention, or ischemic stroke, but it is not effective for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice D reason: This is correct because enoxaparin is a medication for preventing VTE in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that inhibits factor Xa and thrombin, preventing the formation of fibrin. It is administered subcutaneously once or twice daily and does not require routine laboratory monitoring. It has a lower risk of bleeding and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) than unfractionated heparin.
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