A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of acute hemolytic reaction?
Distended neck veins
Client report of low back pain
A productive cough
Client report of tinnitus
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Distended neck veins is not a manifestation of acute hemolytic reaction, but it may indicate fluid overload, which is another possible complication of blood transfusion. Fluid overload may occur when the blood volume or rate of infusion exceeds the client's circulatory capacity. Fluid overload may manifest as dyspnea, crackles, edema, hypertension, or tachycardia.
Choice B reason: Client report of low back pain is a manifestation of acute hemolytic reaction, which is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the donor blood is incompatible with the recipient's blood. Acute hemolytic reaction may occur within minutes or hours of the transfusion and may cause the destruction of the transfused red blood cells. Acute hemolytic reaction may manifest as fever, chills, low back pain, hemoglobinuria, hypotension, or shock.
Choice C reason: A productive cough is not a manifestation of acute hemolytic reaction, but it may indicate a respiratory infection, which is a potential risk of blood transfusion. Blood transfusion may transmit infectious agents, such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites, from the donor to the recipient. A productive cough may also be a sign of pulmonary edema, which may result from fluid overload or transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI).
Choice D reason: Client report of tinnitus is not a manifestation of acute hemolytic reaction, but it may indicate ototoxicity, which is a possible adverse effect of some medications, such as aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, or salicylates. Ototoxicity may damage the inner ear or the auditory nerve and cause hearing loss, tinnitus, or vertigo. The nurse should assess the client's medication history and monitor the client's hearing function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Warfarin PO is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a slow onset of action and requires frequent monitoring of the INR (international normalized ratio). Warfarin may be used for long-term anticoagulation, but it is not effective for preventing the formation of new clots.
Choice B reason: Enoxaparin subcutaneous is a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a rapid onset of action and does not require frequent monitoring of the coagulation status. Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin that inhibits the formation of thrombin and prevents the growth of existing clots.
Choice C reason: Aspirin PO is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a weak anticoagulant effect and may increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the aggregation of platelets and prevents the formation of arterial clots, but it is not effective for preventing venous clots.
Choice D reason: Heparin infusion is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it requires continuous intravenous administration and frequent monitoring of the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin is an unfractionated heparin that inhibits the formation of thrombin and prevents the growth of existing clots, but it has a narrow therapeutic window and a high risk of bleeding.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: The client has a history of hypertension is not the correct answer. Hypertension is a condition in which the blood pressure is abnormally high, usually above 140/90 mmHg. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the blood pressure and reduces the workload of the heart. Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension and angina pectoris, which is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.
Choice B reason: The client has a history of hypothyroidism is not the correct answer. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, which regulate the metabolism and energy levels. Propranolol can mask some of the signs of hypothyroidism, such as tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety. Propranolol can also interfere with the absorption and conversion of thyroid hormones. The nurse should monitor the client's thyroid function tests and report any abnormal values to the provider, but this finding is not a contraindication to the use of propranolol.
Choice C reason: The client has a history of bronchial asthma is the correct answer. Bronchial asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks the beta-1 receptors in the heart and the beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Blocking the beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, which can worsen the symptoms of asthma and trigger an asthma attack. Propranolol is contraindicated in clients who have bronchial asthma, and the nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately.
Choice D reason: The client has a history of migraine headaches is not the correct answer. Migraine headaches are recurrent episodes of severe and throbbing pain, usually on one side of the head, that can be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Propranolol is effective in preventing migraine headaches, as it reduces the frequency and severity of the attacks. Propranolol is indicated for the prophylaxis of migraine headaches, and the nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.
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