A nurse in a provider's clinic is assessing a client who takes sublingual nitroglycerin for stable angina. The client reports getting a headache each time he takes the medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"Take only one dose of nitroglycerin to reduce the risk of getting a headache."
"We will ask the provider to prescribe a different medication for you."
"There's nothing that can be done to relieve the headaches that nitroglycerin causes."
"Try taking a mild analgesic to relieve the headache."
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Taking only one dose of nitroglycerin is not a good advice, as it may not be enough to relieve the angina pain and prevent a myocardial infarction. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that relaxes the blood vessels and improves the blood flow to the heart. The recommended dose is one tablet or spray under the tongue every 5 minutes for up to three doses, or until the pain is relieved. Taking only one dose may compromise the effectiveness of the medication and the safety of the client.
Choice B reason: Asking the provider to prescribe a different medication is not a necessary action, as nitroglycerin is a first-line treatment for stable angina and has proven benefits for reducing mortality and morbidity. Changing the medication may not be appropriate or feasible, as there may not be a suitable alternative that has the same efficacy and safety profile. The client should continue taking nitroglycerin as prescribed, unless the provider decides otherwise.
Choice C reason: Saying that there's nothing that can be done to relieve the headaches is not a true or helpful statement, as there are some measures that can help reduce or prevent the headaches. Headaches are a common and expected side effect of nitroglycerin, as it dilates the blood vessels in the brain and causes increased intracranial pressure. However, the headaches usually subside over time as the body adapts to the medication. The client can also take a mild analgesic, such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen, to relieve the headache, as long as it does not interact with the nitroglycerin or other medications.
Choice D reason: Trying to take a mild analgesic to relieve the headache is a reasonable and appropriate suggestion, as it can help alleviate the discomfort and improve the quality of life of the client. The client should choose an analgesic that is safe and effective, such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen, and follow the directions on the label. The client should also consult the provider or the pharmacist before taking any over-the-counter medications, as some of them may interact with nitroglycerin or other medications. The client should also avoid aspirin, as it may increase the risk of bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Blurred vision is not a common or serious side effect of simvastatin, as it does not affect the eyes or the vision. Blurred vision may be caused by other factors, such as diabetes, hypertension, or eye disorders.
Choice B reason: Orthostatic hypotension is not a common or serious side effect of simvastatin, as it does not affect the blood pressure or the vascular tone. Orthostatic hypotension may be caused by other factors, such as dehydration, anemia, or medication interactions.
Choice C reason: Urinary retention is not a common or serious side effect of simvastatin, as it does not affect the urinary tract or the bladder function. Urinary retention may be caused by other factors, such as prostate enlargement, infection, or nerve damage.
Choice D reason: Muscle weakness is a common and serious side effect of simvastatin, as it can indicate muscle damage or rhabdomyolysis. Rhabdomyolysis is a life-threatening condition that causes the breakdown of muscle tissue and the release of myoglobin into the bloodstream, which can lead to kidney failure. Muscle weakness may be accompanied by muscle pain, tenderness, or dark urine. The nurse should monitor the client's creatine kinase (CK) levels and report any signs of muscle damage to the provider.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because aspirin is not a suitable medication for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that has antiplatelet and analgesic effects, but it is not as effective as anticoagulants for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because alteplase is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for treating it. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves existing blood clots by activating plasminogen. It is used for acute ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, and massive pulmonary embolism, but it has a high risk of bleeding and is contraindicated in clients who have had recent surgery.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because clopidogrel is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for preventing arterial thrombosis. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. It is used for clients who have had acute coronary syndrome, percutaneous coronary intervention, or ischemic stroke, but it is not effective for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice D reason: This is correct because enoxaparin is a medication for preventing VTE in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that inhibits factor Xa and thrombin, preventing the formation of fibrin. It is administered subcutaneously once or twice daily and does not require routine laboratory monitoring. It has a lower risk of bleeding and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) than unfractionated heparin.
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