A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the parents of an infant who has a Pavlik harness.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
"You should place the diaper over the strap of the harness.”
"The harness can be removed for sleeping each night.”
"You can apply lotion under the straps of the harness.”
"The harness can promote hip joint development.”
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not recommend placing the diaper over the strap of the Pavlik harness. Placing the diaper over the strap can cause discomfort and may interfere with the proper function of the harness, which is designed to maintain hip joint alignment in infants with developmental hip dysplasia.
Choice B rationale:
The Pavlik harness is typically worn continuously, including during sleep. It should not be removed for sleeping each night because consistent use is essential for its effectiveness in promoting hip joint development.
Choice C rationale:
Applying lotion under the straps of the harness is not recommended. Lotions or creams can create friction and moisture, which may lead to skin irritation or discomfort for the infant. It's best to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the care and maintenance of the harness.
Choice D rationale:
The correct choice is D. The nurse should include the statement that "The harness can promote hip joint development" in the teaching. This is because the Pavlik harness is used to treat developmental hip dysplasia by maintaining the hip joint in a stable position, allowing for proper development. It is important for parents to understand the purpose and benefits of the harness in order to ensure compliance and effectiveness of the treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Establish learning outcomes. Establishing learning outcomes is an important step in developing an education program, but it should not be the first step. Before setting learning outcomes, the nurse should assess the participants' needs and abilities, which includes determining their literacy level. Without this information, it is difficult to create meaningful and relevant learning outcomes.
Choice B rationale:
Create handouts for participants. Creating handouts is an essential part of the education program, but it should come after determining the literacy level of participants. Handouts should be tailored to the participants' literacy levels to ensure that they can understand and benefit from the materials provided.
Choice D rationale:
Schedule a time to implement the program. Scheduling a time to implement the program is also an important step, but it should not be the first action taken. Before scheduling, the nurse needs to gather information about the participants' needs and abilities to ensure that the program is appropriately designed and timed for their convenience.
Choice C rationale:
Determine the literacy level of participants. Determining the literacy level of participants should be the first action taken when developing an education program for older adults. This step is crucial because it helps the nurse understand the participants' reading and comprehension abilities. It allows the nurse to tailor the program materials and teaching methods to match the literacy level of the group. Older adults may have varying levels of literacy, and customizing the program to their needs will improve its effectiveness and ensure that participants can fully engage and benefit from the educational content.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Answer is: A, B, and C.Respiratory rate, oxygen saturation level, and heart rate are the three findings that require immediate follow-up. These findings indicate that the client is experiencing respiratory distress and possible complications of pneumonia, such as sepsis and cardiac arrhythmia. The client needs prompt intervention to improve oxygenation, stabilize the heart rhythm, and treat the infection.
- Statement D is wrong because the chronic health condition of the client (Parkinson’s disease) is not an acute problem that needs immediate attention. However, it is important to monitor the client’s tremors and medication regimen for Parkinson’s disease.
- Statement E is wrong because the current level of consciousness of the client (alert and oriented to self) is not abnormal or concerning. However, it is important to monitor the client’s mental status for any signs of confusion or agitation.
- Statement F is wrong because the tremors of the client are likely related to the Parkinson’s disease and not to the pneumonia. However, it is important to assess the severity and frequency of the tremors and provide comfort measures.
Normal ranges for the vital signs and arterial blood gas are as follows:
- Respiratory rate: 12 to 20 breaths per minute
- Oxygen saturation level: 95% to 100%
- Heart rate: 60 to 100 beats per minute
- Blood pressure: less than 120/80 mmHg
- Temperature: 36.5°C to 37.2°C
- Arterial blood gas: pH 7.35 to 7.45, PaO2 80 to 100 mmHg, PaCO2 35 to 45 mmHg, HCO3 22 to 26 mEq/L
Correct answer is: A, B, and C.
Choice A rationale: Respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute and labored. This is above the normal range of 12 to 20 breaths per minute and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress. Respiratory distress can lead to hypoxia, tissue damage, and organ failure. Therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up to improve the client’s oxygenation and ventilation.
Choice B rationale: Oxygen saturation level is 88% on room air. This is below the normal range of 95% to 100% and indicates that the client is hypoxemic. Hypoxemia can result from pneumonia, which causes inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli, impairing gas exchange. Hypoxemia can also cause dysrhythmias, confusion, and cyanosis. Therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up to administer supplemental oxygen and monitor the client’s response.
Choice C rationale: Heart rate is 110 beats per minute and irregular. This is above the normal range of 60 to 100 beats per minute and indicates that the client has tachycardia and atrial fibrillation. Tachycardia can result from hypoxia, fever, infection, dehydration, or anxiety. Atrial fibrillation is a type of cardiac arrhythmia that causes irregular and rapid contractions of the atria, reducing the cardiac output and increasing the risk of thromboembolism. Therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up to identify and treat the underlying cause, stabilize the heart rhythm, and prevent complications.
Choice D rationale: Chronic health condition is Parkinson’s disease. This is not an acute problem that requires immediate follow-up. However, it is important to monitor the client’s tremors and medication regimen for Parkinson’s disease, as they can affect the client’s mobility, safety, and quality of life.
Choice E rationale: Current level of consciousness is alert and oriented to self. This is not abnormal or concerning. However, it is important to monitor the client’s mental status for any signs of confusion or agitation, as they can result from hypoxia, infection, or medication side effects.
Choice F rationale: Tremors are in both hands. This is likely related to the Parkinson’s disease and not to the pneumonia. However, it is important to assess the severity and frequency of the tremors and provide comfort measures, such as warm blankets, massage, or relaxation techniques.
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