A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is pregnant.
Nurses' Notes.
0900: Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen.
Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement.
Client is a. gravida 3, para 2 with one preterm birth.
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record.
Select 4 findings that the nurse should identify as a potential prenatal complication
Blood pressure.
Respiratory rate.
Gravida/parity.
Fetal activity.
Headache.
Urine ketones.
Urine protein.
Correct Answer : A,D,E,G
Choice A rationale:
Blood pressure is a crucial parameter to monitor in a pregnant woman. A significant increase in blood pressure could indicate a condition called preeclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys. Preeclampsia usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in women whose blood pressure had been normal. Left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious — even fatal — complications for both mother and baby.
Choice B rationale:
While the respiratory rate is an important vital sign, it does not directly indicate a prenatal complication in this context. Normal respiratory rates for an adult range from 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Changes could indicate a respiratory problem but not specifically a prenatal complication.
Choice C rationale:
Gravida/parity is a standard way to denote a woman's reproductive history but does not indicate a prenatal complication. Gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of the outcome, while parity refers to the number of pregnancies carried past 20 weeks, regardless of whether they were born alive or stillborn.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased fetal activity can be a sign of distress in the fetus. It could indicate complications such as poor oxygenation or other conditions that could affect the health of the baby. It's important for pregnant women to monitor their baby's movements daily after 28 weeks.
Choice E rationale:
A severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen in a pregnant woman could be a sign of preeclampsia, especially when accompanied by other symptoms such as high blood pressure and changes in vision. This should be evaluated immediately.
Choice F rationale:
Urine ketones are usually checked in pregnant women who have symptoms of a condition called ketoacidosis, which is often seen in women with gestational diabetes. However, this condition is not indicated in this scenario.
Choice G rationale:
Protein in the urine is another potential sign of preeclampsia. It's caused by kidney problems resulting from the high blood pressure. In normal conditions, protein should not be present in urine or should be very low.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Informing the client that the procedure will take 60 minutes is not a critical action before an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) The duration of the procedure may vary, but this information is not as essential as other pre-procedure considerations.
Choice B rationale:
The correct action is to "Ensure that the client gave informed consent." Before any invasive procedure like an EGD, it is crucial to confirm that the client has provided informed consent. This ensures that the client understands the procedure, its risks, and benefits, and has the opportunity to ask questions and make an informed decision.
Choice C rationale:
Administering an oral contrast solution is not typically done before an EGD. An EGD involves the insertion of a flexible scope through the mouth into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum to visualize these structures. Contrast solutions are usually used in other imaging procedures, such as barium swallow studies.
Choice D rationale:
Ensuring that the client's bladder is full is not necessary for an EGD. This requirement may be relevant for other imaging studies, but it does not apply to this procedure. The focus should be on the client's comfort, safety, and informed consent before the EGD.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Tingling of the scalp. Tingling of the scalp is not a common adverse reaction following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) ECT primarily affects the brain and may result in memory-related side effects, but tingling of the scalp is not typically associated with this procedure.
Choice C rationale:
Voice alteration. Voice alteration is not a common adverse reaction to ECT. ECT is a procedure that involves inducing controlled seizures in the brain, and its primary effects are on cognitive and neurological function rather than the vocal cords or voice.
Choice D rationale:
Neck pain. Neck pain is not a common adverse reaction to ECT. This procedure primarily affects the brain and central nervous system, and neck pain is not typically associated with it.
Choice B rationale:
Temporary memory loss. Temporary memory loss is a well-documented and common adverse reaction to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) ECT can affect memory consolidation, and clients may experience temporary memory gaps or difficulties recalling recent events. However, these memory deficits are usually short-term and improve over time.
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