A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is pregnant.
Nurses' Notes.
0900: Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen.
Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement.
Client is a. gravida 3, para 2 with one preterm birth.
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record.
Select 4 findings that the nurse should identify as a potential prenatal complication
Blood pressure.
Respiratory rate.
Gravida/parity.
Fetal activity.
Headache.
Urine ketones.
Urine protein.
Correct Answer : A,D,E,G
Choice A rationale:
Blood pressure is a crucial parameter to monitor in a pregnant woman. A significant increase in blood pressure could indicate a condition called preeclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys. Preeclampsia usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in women whose blood pressure had been normal. Left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious — even fatal — complications for both mother and baby.
Choice B rationale:
While the respiratory rate is an important vital sign, it does not directly indicate a prenatal complication in this context. Normal respiratory rates for an adult range from 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Changes could indicate a respiratory problem but not specifically a prenatal complication.
Choice C rationale:
Gravida/parity is a standard way to denote a woman's reproductive history but does not indicate a prenatal complication. Gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of the outcome, while parity refers to the number of pregnancies carried past 20 weeks, regardless of whether they were born alive or stillborn.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased fetal activity can be a sign of distress in the fetus. It could indicate complications such as poor oxygenation or other conditions that could affect the health of the baby. It's important for pregnant women to monitor their baby's movements daily after 28 weeks.
Choice E rationale:
A severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen in a pregnant woman could be a sign of preeclampsia, especially when accompanied by other symptoms such as high blood pressure and changes in vision. This should be evaluated immediately.
Choice F rationale:
Urine ketones are usually checked in pregnant women who have symptoms of a condition called ketoacidosis, which is often seen in women with gestational diabetes. However, this condition is not indicated in this scenario.
Choice G rationale:
Protein in the urine is another potential sign of preeclampsia. It's caused by kidney problems resulting from the high blood pressure. In normal conditions, protein should not be present in urine or should be very low.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Documenting the medication error in the provider's progress notes is not the appropriate location for documenting a medication error. Progress notes are typically used to record the client's clinical progress and assessments, not incidents of medication errors.
Choice B rationale:
The controlled substance inventory record is used to track the dispensing and administration of controlled substances in a healthcare facility. Documenting a medication error in this record is not appropriate, as it is not the purpose of this document.
Choice C rationale:
Documenting the medication error in an incident report is the correct action. Incident reports are used to document and track adverse events or errors that occur in healthcare settings. This allows for proper investigation, analysis, and the implementation of preventive measures to avoid similar errors in the future.
Choice D rationale:
The nursing care plan is a document that outlines the client's nursing care needs, goals, and interventions. While it may include information about medication administration, it is not the appropriate place to document a medication error. An incident report is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that the error is appropriately addressed and investigated.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
"Fidelity involves ensuring that we do no harm to the client." - This statement is not an accurate description of fidelity. Fidelity, in ethical terms, primarily refers to keeping promises and being loyal to clients, rather than preventing harm.
Choice B rationale:
"Fidelity involves making sure clients are able to make their own health care decisions." - While this statement relates to ethical principles, it is more closely associated with the principle of autonomy rather than fidelity. Fidelity is about keeping promises and being trustworthy.
Choice C rationale:
"Fidelity involves keeping promises made to clients." - This is the correct answer. Fidelity is the ethical principle that involves keeping commitments, promises, and agreements made to clients. It emphasizes the importance of honesty, trustworthiness, and integrity in the nurse-patient relationship.
Choice D rationale:
"Fidelity involves treating every client with the same level of respect." - While respecting clients is essential in nursing practice, this statement does not directly address the concept of fidelity. Fidelity is more about keeping promises and being loyal to individual clients rather than a uniform approach to all clients.
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