A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching to a client following arthroscopic (joint) surgery.
To prevent postoperative complications which of the following actions should be reinforced during the teaching of Continuous passive motion (CPM)?
Let the patient lift the machine onto the bed.
Tell the patient CPM will not hurt at all.
The patient really doesn't need to do CPM exercises.
Administer an opioid analgesic to the client 30 min prior to initiating CPM exercises.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Allowing the patient to lift the CPM machine onto the bed is not a safe practice. Arthroscopic surgery may result in limited mobility and discomfort for the patient. Lifting heavy equipment could potentially strain the surgical site or lead to injury.
Choice B rationale:
Telling the patient that CPM will not hurt at all is not accurate. While CPM is a passive motion technique aimed at preventing joint stiffness, some discomfort or mild pain may be experienced, especially during the initial sessions. Managing the patient's pain is essential to ensure compliance with the CPM exercises.
Choice C rationale:
Suggesting that the patient does not need to do CPM exercises is incorrect. CPM exercises are often prescribed after joint surgery to prevent joint stiffness, improve circulation, and aid in recovery. Discouraging the patient from participating in these exercises would be detrimental to their postoperative outcome.
Choice D rationale:
Administering an opioid analgesic to the client 30 minutes before initiating CPM exercises is the correct choice. CPM exercises can be uncomfortable for some patients, especially in the initial stages, and providing adequate pain relief before starting the exercises promotes patient comfort and compliance. It helps ensure that the patient can perform the exercises effectively without undue pain, reducing the risk of complications and promoting a successful recovery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not recommend placing the diaper over the strap of the Pavlik harness. Placing the diaper over the strap can cause discomfort and may interfere with the proper function of the harness, which is designed to maintain hip joint alignment in infants with developmental hip dysplasia.
Choice B rationale:
The Pavlik harness is typically worn continuously, including during sleep. It should not be removed for sleeping each night because consistent use is essential for its effectiveness in promoting hip joint development.
Choice C rationale:
Applying lotion under the straps of the harness is not recommended. Lotions or creams can create friction and moisture, which may lead to skin irritation or discomfort for the infant. It's best to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the care and maintenance of the harness.
Choice D rationale:
The correct choice is D. The nurse should include the statement that "The harness can promote hip joint development" in the teaching. This is because the Pavlik harness is used to treat developmental hip dysplasia by maintaining the hip joint in a stable position, allowing for proper development. It is important for parents to understand the purpose and benefits of the harness in order to ensure compliance and effectiveness of the treatment.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B and C.
Choice A rationale:
Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.
Choice B rationale:
The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.
Choice C rationale:
Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.
Choice D rationale:
Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.
Choice E rationale:
Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.
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