A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching to a client following arthroscopic (joint) surgery.
To prevent postoperative complications which of the following actions should be reinforced during the teaching of Continuous passive motion (CPM)?
Let the patient lift the machine onto the bed.
Tell the patient CPM will not hurt at all.
The patient really doesn't need to do CPM exercises.
Administer an opioid analgesic to the client 30 min prior to initiating CPM exercises.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Allowing the patient to lift the CPM machine onto the bed is not a safe practice. Arthroscopic surgery may result in limited mobility and discomfort for the patient. Lifting heavy equipment could potentially strain the surgical site or lead to injury.
Choice B rationale:
Telling the patient that CPM will not hurt at all is not accurate. While CPM is a passive motion technique aimed at preventing joint stiffness, some discomfort or mild pain may be experienced, especially during the initial sessions. Managing the patient's pain is essential to ensure compliance with the CPM exercises.
Choice C rationale:
Suggesting that the patient does not need to do CPM exercises is incorrect. CPM exercises are often prescribed after joint surgery to prevent joint stiffness, improve circulation, and aid in recovery. Discouraging the patient from participating in these exercises would be detrimental to their postoperative outcome.
Choice D rationale:
Administering an opioid analgesic to the client 30 minutes before initiating CPM exercises is the correct choice. CPM exercises can be uncomfortable for some patients, especially in the initial stages, and providing adequate pain relief before starting the exercises promotes patient comfort and compliance. It helps ensure that the patient can perform the exercises effectively without undue pain, reducing the risk of complications and promoting a successful recovery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B and C.
Choice A rationale:
Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.
Choice B rationale:
The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.
Choice C rationale:
Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.
Choice D rationale:
Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.
Choice E rationale:
Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A laissez-faire leadership style is characterized by a lack of involvement or control, and it is not typically associated with perpetrators of child abuse.
Choice B rationale:
Self-blame for financial problems may lead to stress but is not a characteristic finding of perpetrators of child abuse.
Choice C rationale:
High self-esteem is not typically associated with perpetrators of child abuse. In fact, abusers often have low self-esteem and exert power and control over others to compensate for it.
Choice D rationale:
Perpetrators of child abuse often have rigid expectations of behavior from their children and may employ authoritarian parenting styles. This characteristic can contribute to abusive behaviors.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.