A nurse is assisting with the care of a client on an orthopedic unit.
Select words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.
The client is at risk for developing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C"}
The correct answer is choice A: Fat embolism syndrome.
Choice A rationale:
The client with an open fracture to the right femur is at risk for developing Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES) FES occurs when fat globules from the bone marrow or other tissues enter the bloodstream, leading to systemic complications. In this case, with an open fracture, there is a higher risk of fat emboli entering the circulation. The clinical manifestations of FES include respiratory distress, altered mental status, and petechial rash. These symptoms typically occur within 24-72 hours after the injury, which aligns with the timeline mentioned in the progress report on Day 1 of admission.
Choice B rationale:
Osteomyelitis is less likely to develop within the first 24 hours following a motor vehicle crash. It is an infection of the bone and typically takes more time to manifest. The early concerns in an open fracture involve the risk of infection, but osteomyelitis is not an immediate threat in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Compartment syndrome is a potential concern in orthopedic injuries, but it primarily arises due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment, causing reduced blood flow. While it is a valid concern, it is not typically associated with fat embolism syndrome, which is more specific to the release of fat globules into the bloodstream.
Choice D rationale:
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a concern in immobile patients or those with significant trauma, but it is not the most immediate concern in this case. DVT usually develops over time and is more associated with prolonged immobilization rather than the early stages of admission.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
"Prednisone can cause blood glucose levels to increase." Rationale: This statement is accurate. Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication known to cause hyperglycemia (high blood glucose levels) as a side effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's blood glucose levels while they are taking prednisone, especially if the client has preexisting diabetes or risk factors for diabetes.
Choice B rationale:
"Older adults are at risk for developing type 1 diabetes mellitus." Rationale: This statement is incorrect. Type 1 diabetes mellitus typically develops in childhood or early adulthood and is characterized by autoimmune destruction of the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. Older adults are more at risk for developing type 2 diabetes, which is different from type 1 diabetes in terms of its etiology and pathophysiology.
Choice C rationale:
"Having COPD causes blood glucose levels to fluctuate." Rationale: This statement is not accurate. COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) primarily affects the respiratory system and does not directly cause blood glucose level fluctuations. Blood glucose levels can be affected indirectly in some cases due to factors like medications or stress associated with the illness, but it is not a direct result of COPD.
Choice D rationale:
"Albuterol treatments can cause blood glucose levels to decrease." Rationale: This statement is not a typical effect of albuterol treatments. Albuterol is a bronchodilator commonly used to treat respiratory conditions like COPD and asthma. It is not known to cause significant decreases in blood glucose levels.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: "My partner will use condoms with spermicides.”
Choice A rationale:
"My partner and I will use petroleum jelly with latex condoms.” This statement is incorrect because petroleum jelly can degrade latex condoms, making them more likely to break. It’s important to use water-based or silicone-based lubricants with latex condoms to maintain their integrity and effectiveness.
Choice B rationale:
"My partner and I will both use a condom during intercourse.” Using two condoms at once, also known as ‘double-bagging’, is not recommended as it can increase the friction between the condoms and lead to breakage. Therefore, this statement does not indicate an understanding of proper condom use.
Choice C rationale:
"I will be able to remove my contraceptive sponge immediately after intercourse.” The contraceptive sponge should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness, but not more than 30 hours in total. Immediate removal does not provide the necessary time for the spermicide in the sponge to deactivate the sperm.
Choice D rationale:
"My partner will use condoms with spermicides.” This statement is correct. Condoms with spermicides provide an additional layer of contraceptive protection by combining the barrier method with a chemical that deactivates sperm. This indicates an understanding of the teaching on effective contraceptive practices.
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