A nurse is caring for a client who has antisocial personality disorder who requests to smoke outside of scheduled smoke breaks.
Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

"Let me check with the charge nurse to see if your smoke breaks can be adjusted.”

"Why do you feel we should allow you extra smoke breaks?”

"I can give you an extra smoke break if you agree to participate in group therapy.”

"The smoking times on the unit are after each meal.”

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:

The appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to consider the client's request and check with the charge nurse to see if it's possible to adjust the smoke breaks. This response demonstrates a willingness to listen to the client's request and explore the possibility of accommodating their needs within the unit's policies and routines. It does not immediately grant the request but shows respect for the client's concerns and attempts to find a compromise.

Choice B rationale:

Asking the client why they feel extra smoke breaks should be allowed is not the best response. It may come across as confrontational and defensive, which can escalate the situation. Clients with antisocial personality disorder may have difficulty adhering to rules, so it's essential to approach their requests with a collaborative and problem-solving attitude.

Choice C rationale:

Offering an extra smoke break in exchange for participation in group therapy is not an appropriate response. It can be seen as manipulating the client or using rewards to control their behavior. It's essential to maintain clear boundaries and not use rewards or punishments as a means of managing clients with personality disorders.

Choice D rationale:

Telling the client the smoking times on the unit are after each meal is not an appropriate response either. It doesn't address the client's request and simply restates the unit's policy. It's important to engage in a more therapeutic and client-centered approach when responding to requests from individuals with personality disorders.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

"This medication can increase your risk for sunburn." Ciprofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone antibiotic, can increase the risk of sunburn and photosensitivity reactions. Patients taking this medication should be advised to use sunscreen, wear protective clothing, and avoid excessive sun exposure to prevent sunburn.

Choice B rationale:

"Take an antacid if the medication causes gastrointestinal upset." Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with antacids or other products containing calcium, magnesium, aluminum, or iron, as these can interfere with its absorption. Therefore, advising the patient to take an antacid with ciprofloxacin is incorrect.

Choice C rationale:

"Restrict your daily fluid intake while taking this medication." There is no need to restrict fluid intake while taking ciprofloxacin. In fact, it is important for patients to stay well-hydrated to prevent potential side effects like crystalluria. Adequate fluid intake helps dilute the urine and reduce the risk of crystal formation.

Choice D rationale:

"Expect to experience diarrhea while taking this medication." Diarrhea can be a side effect of ciprofloxacin, but it is not something patients should necessarily expect. While gastrointestinal upset is a known side effect, not everyone who takes the medication will experience diarrhea. Patients should be advised to report any severe or persistent diarrhea to their healthcare provider.

A. Respiratory rate. B. Oxygen saturation level. C. Heart rate. D. Chronic health condition. E. Current level of consciousness. F. Tremors

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

Answer is: A, B, and C.Respiratory rate, oxygen saturation level, and heart rate are the three findings that require immediate follow-up. These findings indicate that the client is experiencing respiratory distress and possible complications of pneumonia, such as sepsis and cardiac arrhythmia. The client needs prompt intervention to improve oxygenation, stabilize the heart rhythm, and treat the infection.

Statement D is wrong because the chronic health condition of the client (Parkinson’s disease) is not an acute problem that needs immediate attention. However, it is important to monitor the client’s tremors and medication regimen for Parkinson’s disease.
Statement E is wrong because the current level of consciousness of the client (alert and oriented to self) is not abnormal or concerning. However, it is important to monitor the client’s mental status for any signs of confusion or agitation.
Statement F is wrong because the tremors of the client are likely related to the Parkinson’s disease and not to the pneumonia. However, it is important to assess the severity and frequency of the tremors and provide comfort measures.

Normal ranges for the vital signs and arterial blood gas are as follows:

Correct answer is: A, B, and C.

Choice A rationale: Respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute and labored. This is above the normal range of 12 to 20 breaths per minute and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress. Respiratory distress can lead to hypoxia, tissue damage, and organ failure. Therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up to improve the client’s oxygenation and ventilation.

Choice B rationale: Oxygen saturation level is 88% on room air. This is below the normal range of 95% to 100% and indicates that the client is hypoxemic. Hypoxemia can result from pneumonia, which causes inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli, impairing gas exchange. Hypoxemia can also cause dysrhythmias, confusion, and cyanosis. Therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up to administer supplemental oxygen and monitor the client’s response.

Choice C rationale: Heart rate is 110 beats per minute and irregular. This is above the normal range of 60 to 100 beats per minute and indicates that the client has tachycardia and atrial fibrillation. Tachycardia can result from hypoxia, fever, infection, dehydration, or anxiety. Atrial fibrillation is a type of cardiac arrhythmia that causes irregular and rapid contractions of the atria, reducing the cardiac output and increasing the risk of thromboembolism. Therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up to identify and treat the underlying cause, stabilize the heart rhythm, and prevent complications.

Choice D rationale: Chronic health condition is Parkinson’s disease. This is not an acute problem that requires immediate follow-up. However, it is important to monitor the client’s tremors and medication regimen for Parkinson’s disease, as they can affect the client’s mobility, safety, and quality of life.

Choice E rationale: Current level of consciousness is alert and oriented to self. This is not abnormal or concerning. However, it is important to monitor the client’s mental status for any signs of confusion or agitation, as they can result from hypoxia, infection, or medication side effects.

Choice F rationale: Tremors are in both hands. This is likely related to the Parkinson’s disease and not to the pneumonia. However, it is important to assess the severity and frequency of the tremors and provide comfort measures, such as warm blankets, massage, or relaxation techniques.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has antisocial personality disorder who requests to smoke outside of scheduled smoke breaks.Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

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A nurse is caring for a client who has antisocial personality disorder who requests to smoke outside of scheduled smoke breaks.Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

A nurse is caring for a client who has antisocial personality disorder who requests to smoke outside of scheduled smoke breaks.
Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?