A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a group of clients who have communicable diseases.
Which of the following infections should the nurse report to the state health department?

Sarcoptes scabiei.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Human papillomavirus.

Impetigo contagiosa.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

Sarcoptes scabiei is the causative agent of scabies, a contagious skin infestation. While scabies is a communicable disease, it is typically not a reportable disease to the state health department. Scabies is usually treated at the individual or community level, and reporting to the state health department is not required.

Choice B rationale:

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the bacterium responsible for gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted infection. Gonorrhea is a notifiable disease, and healthcare providers are required to report cases of gonorrhea to the state health department. This is because gonorrhea is a significant public health concern due to its potential complications and the need for contact tracing and prevention.

Choice C rationale:

Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a very common sexually transmitted infection, but it is typically not a reportable disease to the state health department. HPV can lead to various health issues, including genital warts and certain types of cancer. However, reporting HPV cases is not a standard practice because it is highly prevalent and usually managed at the individual level through screening and vaccination programs.

Choice D rationale:

Impetigo contagiosa is a bacterial skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. While it is contagious, impetigo is not typically a reportable disease to the state health department. Like scabies, impetigo is usually managed at the individual or community level, and reporting is not a standard requirement.

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Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B and C.

Choice A rationale:

Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.

Choice B rationale:

The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.

Choice C rationale:

Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.

Choice D rationale:

Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.

Choice E rationale:

Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.

A. Soiled linens are placed on the floor B. Waste containers are lined with single bags C. Dampened cloths are used for dusting the area D. Uncapped sharps are put in a puncture-resistant container

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Placing soiled linens on the floor can lead to cross-contamination and the spread of infectious agents. This can pose a risk to the immunocompromised client, who may be more susceptible to infections.

Lining waste containers with single bags helps contain potentially infectious waste and facilitates proper disposal. This reduces the risk of contamination and exposure to infectious materials.

Using dampened cloths for dusting helps minimize the spread of dust and airborne particles. Dampening the cloth can help capture the dust and prevent it from becoming airborne, reducing the potential for respiratory exposure.

Placing uncapped sharps in a puncture-resistant container is an essential practice to prevent needlestick injuries and the transmission of bloodborne pathogens. This ensures safe disposal of sharps and reduces the risk of accidental needlestick injuries to healthcare workers and clients.

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A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a group of clients who have communicable diseases.Which of the following infections should the nurse report to the state health department?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is continuing to assist with the care of the client. Exhibits Select words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The complications that the client is at greatest risk for developing are dropdown and dropdown complications.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}

Explanation

A nurse is providing care to a client who is immunocompromised. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a possible source of infection?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a group of clients who have communicable diseases.
Which of the following infections should the nurse report to the state health department?