A nurse is caring for a patient who is 40 weeks pregnant.
Which finding would indicate the need for a cesarean delivery?
The woman has extremely slender hips.
The woman’s fetus is in a transverse lie.
The woman’s fetus is hyperactive.
The woman has a posterior cervix.
The Correct Answer is B
A transverse lie means that the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, instead of head-down or breech.
This position makes vaginal delivery impossible and increases the risk of umbilical cord prolapse, which can compromise fetal oxygen supply. Therefore, a cesarean delivery is indicated for a fetus in a transverse lie.
Choice A is wrong because having extremely slender hips does not necessarily mean that a woman cannot deliver vaginally.
The size and shape of the pelvis, not the external appearance, determines the adequacy of the birth canal. A trial of labor may be attempted for women with borderline pelvic measurements.
Choice C is wrong because fetal hyperactivity is not a reason for a cesarean delivery.
Fetal movements may vary depending on the time of day, maternal activity, maternal blood sugar level, and other factors. Fetal well-being can be assessed by fetal heart rate monitoring and biophysical profile.
Choice D is wrong because having a posterior cervix does not indicate the need for a cesarean delivery.
A posterior cervix means that the cervix is tilted toward the back of the uterus, which may make cervical dilation slower and more painful. However, with adequate contractions and maternal pushing, the cervix can move to an anterior position and allow vaginal delivery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
At 37 weeks, especially in gestational diabetes, fetal lungs may still be immature. Amniocentesis checks lung maturity to ensure the baby can breathe effectively if early delivery is needed due to fetal compromise.
Choice B reason:
Fetal renal function is not typically assessed through amniocentesis at term. Kidney function is monitored via ultrasound, not by analyzing amniotic fluid at 37 weeks.
Choice C reason:
Amniotic fluid glucose levels are not used to manage gestational diabetes. Maternal blood glucose is the standard for monitoring and treatment.
Choice D reason:
Congenital anomalies are usually detected earlier in pregnancy. By 37 weeks, the focus of amniocentesis is on delivery planning, not anomaly detection.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Insufficient relaxation of the uterus between contractions.This is also known astachysystoleorhyperstimulation, which can cause fetal distress and uterine rupture.Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions, but it can also cause them to be too strong or too frequent if given in high doses or for too long.
Choice A is wrong because oxytocin does not decrease body temperature.
Choice B is wrong because oxytocin does not cause maternal cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice C is wrong because oxytocin does not cause urinary retention.
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