A 38-year-old primigravida returns to the clinic at 16 weeks gestation for an alpha-fetoprotein test.She asks a nurse, "Why do lI need this test?".Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?
"This test will help us determine your baby's maturity.".
"This is a routine test for all pregnant women over thity years of age.".
This test is recommended for people with a history of infertility." "This test is used to identify fetal abnormalities.".
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D: “This test is used to identify fetal abnormalities.” Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein produced by the fetus that can be measured in the mother’s blood.
Abnormal levels of AFP may indicate a problem with the development of the baby’s brain, spine, or other organs.
This test is usually done between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice A is wrong because AFP does not measure the baby’s maturity.
It is not related to the gestational age or the lung development of the fetus.
Choice B is wrong because AFP is not a routine test for all pregnant women over thirty years of age.
It is an optional screening test that may be offered to women who have a higher risk of having a baby with a birth defect, such as those who have a family history, a previous affected pregnancy, or certain ethnic backgrounds.
Choice C is wrong because AFP is not recommended for people with a history of infertility.
It does not assess the fertility status of the mother or the father.
It only measures the level of a fetal protein in the mother’s blood.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
he correct answer is choice B. Sufficient perfusion and circulation of the fetus.This is because the fetal heart rate is within the normal range of 110 to 160 beats per minute, and there is moderate beat-to-beat variability, which indicates a healthy nervous system.
Choice A is wrong because insufficient perfusion of the placenta would cause fetal distress and abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, such as late decelerations or minimal variability.
Choice C is wrong because maternal hypoxia would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, unless it leads to placental insufficiency or uterine hyperstimulation.
Choice D is wrong because fetal hypoxia would cause signs of fetal distress, such as tachycardia, bradycardia, or absent variability.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Decreased respirations.Magnesium sulfate is a medication that can causerespiratory depression, which means it can slow down or stop breathing.
This is a serious side effect that needs to be monitored closely by the nurse.
Choice A is wrong because increased Babinski reflex is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate.
The Babinski reflex is a normal response in infants, but abnormal in adults.
It occurs when the big toe bends upward and the other toes fan out when the sole of the foot is stroked.Magnesium sulfate can causepoor reflexes, but not specifically the Babinski reflex.
Choice B is wrong because diarrhea is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate when given intravenously or intramuscularly.Diarrhea can occur when magnesium sulfate is taken orally as a laxative, but that is not the case in this question.
Choice C is wrong because tetany is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate.
Tetany is a condition that causes muscle spasms and cramps due to low levels of calcium in the blood.Magnesium sulfate can actually causehypocalcemia, which means low levels of calcium in the blood, but this does not usually result in tetany.Tetany is more likely to occur when there is low magnesium in the blood, which is calledhypomagnesemia.
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