A 38-year-old primigravida returns to the clinic at 16 weeks gestation for an alpha-fetoprotein test.She asks a nurse, "Why do lI need this test?".Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?
"This test will help us determine your baby's maturity.".
"This is a routine test for all pregnant women over thity years of age.".
This test is recommended for people with a history of infertility." "This test is used to identify fetal abnormalities.".
<p>This test is used to identify fetal abnormalities</p>
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D: “This test is used to identify fetal abnormalities.” Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein produced by the fetus that can be measured in the mother’s blood.
Abnormal levels of AFP may indicate a problem with the development of the baby’s brain, spine, or other organs.
This test is usually done between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice A is wrong because AFP does not measure the baby’s maturity.
It is not related to the gestational age or the lung development of the fetus.
Choice B is wrong because AFP is not a routine test for all pregnant women over thirty years of age.
It is an optional screening test that may be offered to women who have a higher risk of having a baby with a birth defect, such as those who have a family history, a previous affected pregnancy, or certain ethnic backgrounds.
Choice C is wrong because AFP is not recommended for people with a history of infertility.
It does not assess the fertility status of the mother or the father.
It only measures the level of a fetal protein in the mother’s blood.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
This is because terbutaline is a medication that can be used to suppress preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle.It can be given subcutaneously or intravenously for acute episodes of preterm labor, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of serious maternal and fetal adverse effects.Therefore, if the client’s condition stabilizes, the administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral, which has a lower bioavailability and less systemic effects.
Choice A is wrong because terbutaline is not usually self-administered parenterally by the client at home.It requires a trained health professional to give it as a shot under the skin or through a vein.
Choice C is wrong because the client does not need to remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
This is an unnecessary restriction that may increase the client’s stress and anxiety.
The client should be encouraged to have social support and emotional comfort during this time.
Choice D is wrong because the client should not ambulate in the hallway after 12 hours without contractions.
This may stimulate uterine activity and cause a recurrence of preterm labor.
The client should follow the provider’s instructions on bed rest and activity limitations.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Cesarean delivery.A pregnant patient with genital herpes is at higher risk of transmitting the infection to the baby during vaginal delivery, especially if there is an active outbreak near the time of birth.This can cause serious complications for the baby, such as brain damage, eye problems, or even death.Therefore, a cesarean delivery is recommended to avoid contact between the baby and the genital lesions.
Choice A is wrong because forceps-assisted second stage of labor is not a complication of genital herpes.
It is a method of assisted delivery that may be used for various reasons, such as fetal distress, maternal exhaustion, or abnormal presentation.
Choice B is wrong because precipitous delivery, which means a very fast labor and delivery, is not a complication of genital herpes.
It may be caused by factors such as multiparity, strong contractions, or previous rapid deliveries.
Choice C is wrong because prolonged first phase of labor, which means a slow dilation of the cervix, is not a complication of genital herpes.
It may be caused by factors such as ineffective contractions, large fetal size, or malposition.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
