A 38-year-old primigravida returns to the clinic at 16 weeks gestation for an alpha-fetoprotein test.She asks a nurse, "Why do lI need this test?".Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?
"This test will help us determine your baby's maturity.".
"This is a routine test for all pregnant women over thity years of age.".
This test is recommended for people with a history of infertility." "This test is used to identify fetal abnormalities.".
<p>This test is used to identify fetal abnormalities</p>
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D: “This test is used to identify fetal abnormalities.” Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein produced by the fetus that can be measured in the mother’s blood.
Abnormal levels of AFP may indicate a problem with the development of the baby’s brain, spine, or other organs.
This test is usually done between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice A is wrong because AFP does not measure the baby’s maturity.
It is not related to the gestational age or the lung development of the fetus.
Choice B is wrong because AFP is not a routine test for all pregnant women over thirty years of age.
It is an optional screening test that may be offered to women who have a higher risk of having a baby with a birth defect, such as those who have a family history, a previous affected pregnancy, or certain ethnic backgrounds.
Choice C is wrong because AFP is not recommended for people with a history of infertility.
It does not assess the fertility status of the mother or the father.
It only measures the level of a fetal protein in the mother’s blood.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Stretching your legs and pointing your toes toward your knee will bring relief from the leg cramps.This is because stretching can help relax the muscle and ease the spasm.
Choice A is wrong because elevating your legs may not help with leg cramps, and may actually worsen them by reducing blood flow to the muscles.
Choice B is wrong because massaging your legs may not be enough to relieve the cramps, and may also cause more pain if done too hard or too fast.
Choice D is wrong because putting a cold compress on the calf of your leg may not be effective for leg cramps, and may also cause more discomfort or inflammation.
Leg cramps are common during pregnancy, especially in the second and third trimester.They are caused by various factors, such as pregnancy weight gain, changes in blood circulation, pressure on the nerves and blood vessels, nutrient deficiency, lack of exercise, or fluid buildup in your legs.To prevent or reduce leg cramps, you should drink plenty of water, stay active, eat a balanced diet rich in calcium, magnesium, and potassium, avoid standing or sitting for long periods of time, wear comfortable shoes and socks, and sleep on your left side with a pillow under or between your legs.
If leg cramps persist or become severe, you should consult your healthcare provider for possible treatment options.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A transverse lie means that the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, instead of head-down or breech.
This position makes vaginal delivery impossible and increases the risk of umbilical cord prolapse, which can compromise fetal oxygen supply.Therefore, a cesarean delivery is indicated for a fetus in a transverse lie.
Choice A is wrong because having extremely slender hips does not necessarily mean that a woman cannot deliver vaginally.
The size and shape of the pelvis, not the external appearance, determines the adequacy of the birth canal.A trial of labor may be attempted for women with borderline pelvic measurements.
Choice C is wrong because fetal hyperactivity is not a reason for a cesarean delivery.
Fetal movements may vary depending on the time of day, maternal activity, maternal blood sugar level, and other factors.Fetal well-being can be assessed by fetal heart rate monitoring and biophysical profile.
Choice D is wrong because having a posterior cervix does not indicate the need for a cesarean delivery.
A posterior cervix means that the cervix is tilted toward the back of the uterus, which may make cervical dilation slower and more painful.However, with adequate contractions and maternal pushing, the cervix can move to an anterior position and allow vaginal delivery.
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