A 38-year-old primigravida returns to the clinic at 16 weeks gestation for an alpha-fetoprotein test.She asks a nurse, "Why do lI need this test?".Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?
"This test will help us determine your baby's maturity.".
"This is a routine test for all pregnant women over thity years of age.".
This test is recommended for people with a history of infertility." "This test is used to identify fetal abnormalities.".
<p>This test is used to identify fetal abnormalities</p>
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D: “This test is used to identify fetal abnormalities.” Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein produced by the fetus that can be measured in the mother’s blood.
Abnormal levels of AFP may indicate a problem with the development of the baby’s brain, spine, or other organs.
This test is usually done between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice A is wrong because AFP does not measure the baby’s maturity.
It is not related to the gestational age or the lung development of the fetus.
Choice B is wrong because AFP is not a routine test for all pregnant women over thirty years of age.
It is an optional screening test that may be offered to women who have a higher risk of having a baby with a birth defect, such as those who have a family history, a previous affected pregnancy, or certain ethnic backgrounds.
Choice C is wrong because AFP is not recommended for people with a history of infertility.
It does not assess the fertility status of the mother or the father.
It only measures the level of a fetal protein in the mother’s blood.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. A patient who weighed less than 5 lb (2,268 gm) at birth is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR).This is because low birth weight is a possible indicator of genetic factors or placental insufficiency that can affect fetal growth.
Choice B is wrong because an ectopic pregnancy one year ago does not increase the risk of IUGR.An ectopic pregnancy is when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.It does not affect the placental function or fetal development in a subsequent pregnancy.
Choice C is wrong because a mitral valve prolapse does not increase the risk of IUGR.
A mitral valve prolapse is when the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart does not close properly.It usually does not cause any symptoms or complications during pregnancy, unless it is associated with severe regurgitation or arrhythmias.
Choice D is wrong because the father’s age of 42 years old does not increase the risk of IUGR.The father’s age may affect the risk of chromosomal abnormalities or congenital anomalies in the fetus, but not the fetal growth.
Some of the other risk factors for IUGR include maternal smoking, alcohol, or drug use, medical conditions like anemia or lupus, infections such as rubella or syphilis, carrying twins or multiples, high blood pressure, gestational diabetes, and placenta problems.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless uterine contractions that occur throughout pregnancy, but are more noticeable in the third trimester.They do not indicate labor, but rather help in softening and ripening the cervix.
Choice A is wrong because the patient does not need to time the contractions unless they become regular, painful, and closer together, which are signs of true labor.
Choice B is wrong because documenting fetal activity daily is not related to Braxton Hicks contractions.Fetal activity is monitored to assess fetal well-being and detect any signs of fetal distress.
Choice C is wrong because losing the mucus plug is also not related to Braxton Hicks contractions.The mucus plug is a thick plug of mucus that seals the cervical canal during pregnancy and may be expelled before or during labor.
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