A nurse is caring for a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks.

Which finding would the nurse expect during the assessment of this newborn?

Sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot.

Abundance of vernix caseosa in the skin creases.

Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet.

Large amount of fine, downy hair on the back and shoulders.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The correct answer is choice C. Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet. This is because a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks is considered post-mature and has lost the protective vernix caseosa that covers the skin of most newborns. The skin of a post-mature newborn is also more exposed to the amniotic fluid, which can cause it to peel and crack.

Choice A is wrong because sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot are characteristic of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.

Choice B is wrong because vernix caseosa is abundant in preterm newborns and decreases as gestational age increases. A post-mature newborn would have little or no vernix caseosa on the skin.

Choice D is wrong because a large amount of fine, downy hair (lanugo) on the back and shoulders is also typical of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one. Lanugo usually disappears by 36 weeks of gestation. A post-mature newborn would have little or no lanugo on the body.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. A patient who weighed less than 5 lb (2,268 gm) at birth is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR).This is because low birth weight is a possible indicator of genetic factors or placental insufficiency that can affect fetal growth.

Choice B is wrong because an ectopic pregnancy one year ago does not increase the risk of IUGR.An ectopic pregnancy is when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.It does not affect the placental function or fetal development in a subsequent pregnancy.

Choice C is wrong because a mitral valve prolapse does not increase the risk of IUGR.

A mitral valve prolapse is when the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart does not close properly.It usually does not cause any symptoms or complications during pregnancy, unless it is associated with severe regurgitation or arrhythmias.

Choice D is wrong because the father’s age of 42 years old does not increase the risk of IUGR.The father’s age may affect the risk of chromosomal abnormalities or congenital anomalies in the fetus, but not the fetal growth.

Some of the other risk factors for IUGR include maternal smoking, alcohol, or drug use, medical conditions like anemia or lupus, infections such as rubella or syphilis, carrying twins or multiples, high blood pressure, gestational diabetes, and placenta problems.

A. The woman has extremely slender hips. B. The woman’s fetus is in a transverse lie. C. The woman’s fetus is hyperactive. D. The woman has a posterior cervix.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A transverse lie means that the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, instead of head-down or breech.

This position makes vaginal delivery impossible and increases the risk of umbilical cord prolapse, which can compromise fetal oxygen supply.Therefore, a cesarean delivery is indicated for a fetus in a transverse lie.

Choice A is wrong because having extremely slender hips does not necessarily mean that a woman cannot deliver vaginally.

The size and shape of the pelvis, not the external appearance, determines the adequacy of the birth canal.A trial of labor may be attempted for women with borderline pelvic measurements.

Choice C is wrong because fetal hyperactivity is not a reason for a cesarean delivery.

Fetal movements may vary depending on the time of day, maternal activity, maternal blood sugar level, and other factors.Fetal well-being can be assessed by fetal heart rate monitoring and biophysical profile.

Choice D is wrong because having a posterior cervix does not indicate the need for a cesarean delivery.

A posterior cervix means that the cervix is tilted toward the back of the uterus, which may make cervical dilation slower and more painful.However, with adequate contractions and maternal pushing, the cervix can move to an anterior position and allow vaginal delivery.

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A nurse is caring for a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks. Which finding would the nurse expect during the assessment of this newborn?

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks.

Which finding would the nurse expect during the assessment of this newborn?