A nurse is caring for a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks.
Which finding would the nurse expect during the assessment of this newborn?
Sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot.
Abundance of vernix caseosa in the skin creases.
Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet.
Large amount of fine, downy hair on the back and shoulders.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet. This is because a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks is considered post-mature and has lost the protective vernix caseosa that covers the skin of most newborns. The skin of a post-mature newborn is also more exposed to the amniotic fluid, which can cause it to peel and crack.
Choice A is wrong because sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot are characteristic of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.
Choice B is wrong because vernix caseosa is abundant in preterm newborns and decreases as gestational age increases. A post-mature newborn would have little or no vernix caseosa on the skin.
Choice D is wrong because a large amount of fine, downy hair (lanugo) on the back and shoulders is also typical of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one. Lanugo usually disappears by 36 weeks of gestation. A post-mature newborn would have little or no lanugo on the body.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. A patient who weighed less than 5 lb (2,268 gm) at birth is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR).This is because low birth weight is a possible indicator of genetic factors or placental insufficiency that can affect fetal growth.
Choice B is wrong because an ectopic pregnancy one year ago does not increase the risk of IUGR.An ectopic pregnancy is when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.It does not affect the placental function or fetal development in a subsequent pregnancy.
Choice C is wrong because a mitral valve prolapse does not increase the risk of IUGR.
A mitral valve prolapse is when the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart does not close properly.It usually does not cause any symptoms or complications during pregnancy, unless it is associated with severe regurgitation or arrhythmias.
Choice D is wrong because the father’s age of 42 years old does not increase the risk of IUGR.The father’s age may affect the risk of chromosomal abnormalities or congenital anomalies in the fetus, but not the fetal growth.
Some of the other risk factors for IUGR include maternal smoking, alcohol, or drug use, medical conditions like anemia or lupus, infections such as rubella or syphilis, carrying twins or multiples, high blood pressure, gestational diabetes, and placenta problems.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. The patient should palpate her breasts using the padded sections of her fingers.This is the recommended technique for breast self-examination, as it allows the patient to feel any changes or lumps in the breast tissue.
Choice A is wrong because the patient should perform breast self-examination at the same time each month, preferably a few days after the menstrual period ends when the breasts are less likely to be swollen or tender.
Choice B is wrong because the patient should not assume that any lumps that are present in both breasts are normal.Some breast cancers can affect both breasts, and any new or unusual lumps should be reported to a doctor.
Choice D is wrong because the patient should look at her breasts while standing in front of the mirror with her arms at her sides, raised overhead, and pressed firmly on her hips.She should also look for any changes in the shape, size, color, or texture of her breasts and nipples.
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