A nurse is caring for a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks.
Which finding would the nurse expect during the assessment of this newborn?
Sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot.
Abundance of vernix caseosa in the skin creases.
Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet.
Large amount of fine, downy hair on the back and shoulders.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet. This is because a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks is considered post-mature and has lost the protective vernix caseosa that covers the skin of most newborns. The skin of a post-mature newborn is also more exposed to the amniotic fluid, which can cause it to peel and crack.
Choice A is wrong because sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot are characteristic of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.
Choice B is wrong because vernix caseosa is abundant in preterm newborns and decreases as gestational age increases. A post-mature newborn would have little or no vernix caseosa on the skin.
Choice D is wrong because a large amount of fine, downy hair (lanugo) on the back and shoulders is also typical of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one. Lanugo usually disappears by 36 weeks of gestation. A post-mature newborn would have little or no lanugo on the body.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. The increase in maternal blood volume is greater than the increase in maternal red blood cells.
This means that the concentration of hemoglobin and hematocrit in the blood is diluted by the extra fluid.
This is a normal physiological adaptation to pregnancy and does not indicate iron deficiency anemia.
Choice A is wrong because placental hormones do not chelate maternal iron.
Chelation is a process of binding metal ions to organic molecules, which is not relevant to this question.
Choice B is wrong because fetal demand for iron is not greater than maternal intake.
The mother can meet the iron needs of the fetus by increasing her dietary intake and taking iron supplements.
Choice C is wrong because maternal intestinal absorption of iron is not decreased during pregnancy.
In fact, it may be increased due to higher levels of estrogen and progesterone.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A: “The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time.” This is because the client is experiencing lochia serosa, which is a brownish discharge that occurs from about day 4 to day 10 postpartum.
Lochia serosa is composed of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris.
It indicates that the placental site is healing and the uterus is involuting.
Choice B is wrong because fever is a sign of infection, not normal lochia.
Choice C is wrong because ovulation usually does not resume until 6 weeks postpartum for nonbreastfeeding women and later for breastfeeding women.
Choice D is wrong because iron supplements do not affect lochia color or amount.
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