A nurse is caring for a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks.
Which finding would the nurse expect during the assessment of this newborn?
Sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot.
Abundance of vernix caseosa in the skin creases.
Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet.
Large amount of fine, downy hair on the back and shoulders.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet. This is because a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks is considered post-mature and has lost the protective vernix caseosa that covers the skin of most newborns. The skin of a post-mature newborn is also more exposed to the amniotic fluid, which can cause it to peel and crack.
Choice A is wrong because sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot are characteristic of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.
Choice B is wrong because vernix caseosa is abundant in preterm newborns and decreases as gestational age increases. A post-mature newborn would have little or no vernix caseosa on the skin.
Choice D is wrong because a large amount of fine, downy hair (lanugo) on the back and shoulders is also typical of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one. Lanugo usually disappears by 36 weeks of gestation. A post-mature newborn would have little or no lanugo on the body.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in blood.This is apositive sign of pregnancythat can only be attributed to a fetus.hCG is a hormone produced by the placenta that can be detected in blood or urine tests.
Choice A. Quickening.This is apresumptive sign of pregnancythat is based on the woman’s report of feeling fetal movements in her lower abdomen.This can occur at 16 weeks for second time moms and around 20 weeks for first time moms.However, this sign is not conclusive as other conditions can cause similar sensations.
Choice B. Uterine enlargement.This is aprobable sign of pregnancythat can be observed by the nurse or doctor through palpation.However, this sign does not mean 100% that a baby is growing in the uterus as it can be due to other causes such as fibroids or tumors.
Choice C. Urinary frequency.This is apresumptive sign of pregnancythat is based on the woman’s report of needing to urinate more often than usual.This can be caused by hormonal changes and increased blood volume during pregnancy.However, this sign is not definitive as other conditions such as urinary tract infections or diabetes can also cause frequent urination.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery.Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.
Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves.It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.
Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart.It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.
Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus.Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.
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