A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oxytocin injection intravenously for labor induction.The nurse should monitor this patient for which adverse effect of oxytocin?
Decrease in body temperature.
Maternal cardiac arrhythmias.
Urinary retention.
Insufficient relaxation of the uterus between contractions.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D. Insufficient relaxation of the uterus between contractions. This is also known as tachysystole or hyperstimulation, which can cause fetal distress and uterine rupture. Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions, but it can also cause them to be too strong or too frequent if given in high doses or for too long.
Choice A is wrong because oxytocin does not decrease body temperature.
Choice B is wrong because oxytocin does not cause maternal cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice C is wrong because oxytocin does not cause urinary retention.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Position the patient in a left lateral position.This is because late fetal decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which means that the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen to the fetus.By positioning the patient on her left side, the blood flow to the placenta and the fetus is improved.
Choice A is wrong because notifying the health care provider is not the first action that the nurse should take.The nurse should first intervene to correct the cause of fetal distress and then inform the provider.
Choice C is wrong because increasing the patient’s intravenous rate may not help with uteroplacental insufficiency.It may also cause fluid overload or pulmonary edema in the patient.
Choice D is wrong because providing the patient with oxygen via a face mask is not the most effective way to increase fetal oxygenation.Oxygen therapy may be used as an adjunct to other interventions, but it is not sufficient by itself.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
This is because terbutaline is a medication that can be used to suppress preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle.It can be given subcutaneously or intravenously for acute episodes of preterm labor, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of serious maternal and fetal adverse effects.Therefore, if the client’s condition stabilizes, the administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral, which has a lower bioavailability and less systemic effects.
Choice A is wrong because terbutaline is not usually self-administered parenterally by the client at home.It requires a trained health professional to give it as a shot under the skin or through a vein.
Choice C is wrong because the client does not need to remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
This is an unnecessary restriction that may increase the client’s stress and anxiety.
The client should be encouraged to have social support and emotional comfort during this time.
Choice D is wrong because the client should not ambulate in the hallway after 12 hours without contractions.
This may stimulate uterine activity and cause a recurrence of preterm labor.
The client should follow the provider’s instructions on bed rest and activity limitations.
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