A patient who is 34 weeks pregnant attends the antepartal clinic and is diagnosed with mild pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). The decision is made to treat the patient at home.
Which instruction would be most appropriate to give to the patient?

Try to limit your intake of spicy foods.

Limit your intake of liquids to about a quart a day.

Be sure to urinate at least every two hours.

Rest on your side as much as possible.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The correct answer is choice D. Rest on your side as much as possible. This is because resting on the side can improve blood flow to the placenta and lower blood pressure. It can also reduce the risk of supine hypotensive syndrome, which occurs when the weight of the uterus compresses the inferior vena cava and reduces venous return.

Choice A is wrong because spicy foods have no effect on blood pressure or pregnancy outcomes. Choice B is wrong because limiting fluid intake can lead to dehydration and increase blood viscosity, which can worsen hypertension. Choice C is wrong because urinating frequently does not lower blood pressure or prevent complications of pregnancy-induced hypertension.

Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy. It can lead to serious problems for both the mother and the baby, such as pre-eclampsia, eclampsia, placental abruption, fetal growth restriction, and stillbirth.

Women with PIH should follow their doctor’s advice on medication, diet, exercise, and monitoring. They should also report any symptoms of pre-eclampsia, such as severe headache, blurred vision, abdominal pain, or swelling.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is choice C. Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet.This is because a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks is considered post-mature and has lost the protective vernix caseosa that covers the skin of most newborns.The skin of a post-mature newborn is also more exposed to the amniotic fluid, which can cause it to peel and crack.

Choice A is wrong because sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot are characteristic of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.

Choice B is wrong because vernix caseosa is abundant in preterm newborns and decreases as gestational age increases.A post-mature newborn would have little or no vernix caseosa on the skin.

Choice D is wrong because a large amount of fine, downy hair (lanugo) on the back and shoulders is also typical of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.Lanugo usually disappears by 36 weeks of gestation.A post-mature newborn would have little or no lanugo on the body.

A. Rubella titer 1:33. B. Serologic test for syphilis (STS) - non-reactive. C. Blood type A-negative. D. Hemoglobin 12.2 gm/dL.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A rubella titer of 1:33 indicates a low level of immunity to rubella, which can be dangerous for a pregnant woman and her fetus.

Rubella is a viral infection that can cause birth defects or miscarriage if contracted during pregnancy.A rubella titer of 1:10 or higher is considered protective.

Choice B is wrong because a non-reactive serologic test for syphilis (STS) means that the patient does not have syphilis, which is a bacterial infection that can also harm the fetus if untreated.

Choice C is wrong because blood type A-negative does not require further assessment unless the patient has antibodies to the Rh factor, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn if the fetus is Rh-positive.

This can be prevented by giving the patient Rh immunoglobulin injections during pregnancy and after delivery.

Choice D is wrong because hemoglobin 12.2 gm/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman, which is 11 to 14 gm/dL.

Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen.

A low hemoglobin level can indicate anemia, which can affect the oxygen delivery to the fetus and increase the risk of preterm labor or low birth weight.

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A patient who is 34 weeks pregnant attends the antepartal clinic and is diagnosed with mild pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). The decision is made to treat the patient at home. Which instruction would be most appropriate to give to the patient?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks. Which finding would the nurse expect during the assessment of this newborn?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a pregnant patient.Which result will require further assessment?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A patient who is 34 weeks pregnant attends the antepartal clinic and is diagnosed with mild pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). The decision is made to treat the patient at home. Which instruction would be most appropriate to give to the patient?

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A patient who is 34 weeks pregnant attends the antepartal clinic and is diagnosed with mild pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). The decision is made to treat the patient at home.
Which instruction would be most appropriate to give to the patient?