A patient who is 33 weeks pregnant has been experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions.Which information should the nurse include in responding to this patient?
This patient should begin to time the contractions.
This patient should document fetal activity daily.
This patient may be losing her mucus plug.
This patient’s contractions are normal at this time.
The Correct Answer is D
Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless uterine contractions that occur throughout pregnancy, but are more noticeable in the third trimester. They do not indicate labor, but rather help in softening and ripening the cervix.
Choice A is wrong because the patient does not need to time the contractions unless they become regular, painful, and closer together, which are signs of true labor.
Choice B is wrong because documenting fetal activity daily is not related to Braxton Hicks contractions. Fetal activity is monitored to assess fetal well-being and detect any signs of fetal distress.
Choice C is wrong because losing the mucus plug is also not related to Braxton Hicks contractions. The mucus plug is a thick plug of mucus that seals the cervical canal during pregnancy and may be expelled before or during labor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A: “The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time.” This is because the client is experiencing lochia serosa, which is a brownish discharge that occurs from about day 4 to day 10 postpartum.
Lochia serosa is composed of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris.
It indicates that the placental site is healing and the uterus is involuting.
Choice B is wrong because fever is a sign of infection, not normal lochia.
Choice C is wrong because ovulation usually does not resume until 6 weeks postpartum for nonbreastfeeding women and later for breastfeeding women.
Choice D is wrong because iron supplements do not affect lochia color or amount.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. A patient who weighed less than 5 lb (2,268 gm) at birth is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR).This is because low birth weight is a possible indicator of genetic factors or placental insufficiency that can affect fetal growth.
Choice B is wrong because an ectopic pregnancy one year ago does not increase the risk of IUGR.An ectopic pregnancy is when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.It does not affect the placental function or fetal development in a subsequent pregnancy.
Choice C is wrong because a mitral valve prolapse does not increase the risk of IUGR.
A mitral valve prolapse is when the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart does not close properly.It usually does not cause any symptoms or complications during pregnancy, unless it is associated with severe regurgitation or arrhythmias.
Choice D is wrong because the father’s age of 42 years old does not increase the risk of IUGR.The father’s age may affect the risk of chromosomal abnormalities or congenital anomalies in the fetus, but not the fetal growth.
Some of the other risk factors for IUGR include maternal smoking, alcohol, or drug use, medical conditions like anemia or lupus, infections such as rubella or syphilis, carrying twins or multiples, high blood pressure, gestational diabetes, and placenta problems.
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