A patient diagnosed with preeclampsia is admitted to the hospital and prescribed magnesium sulfate therapy.
What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate to this patient?
To decrease her blood pressure.
To decrease her tidal volume.
To prevent her from becoming dehydrated.
To prevent her from having convulsions.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D: To prevent her from having convulsions. Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that reduces seizure risks in women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy. Magnesium sulfate can lower the cerebral perfusion pressure and prevent convulsions. However, magnesium sulfate does not affect the neonatal outcomes and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease blood pressure. It is used along with medications that help reduce blood pressure.
Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease tidal volume. It can cause respiratory depression if the serum level is too high.
Choice C is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not prevent dehydration. It can cause fluid retention and pulmonary edema if given in excess.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because late fetal heart rate decelerations are a sign of uteroplacental insufficiency, which means that the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.Oxytocin can cause uterine tachysystole, which is excessive and frequent contractions that reduce blood flow to the placenta.Therefore, stopping the oxytocin infusion can help improve placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation.
Choice A is wrong because documenting the findings is not a priority action in this situation.
The nurse should first intervene to address the cause of late decelerations and then document the actions and outcomes.
Choice C is wrong because raising the head of the patient’s bed 30 degrees does not directly affect the placental blood flow or fetal oxygenation.
It may help with maternal comfort and breathing, but it is not an essential action for late decelerations.
Choice D is wrong because notifying the health care provider is not the first action to take.The nurse should first attempt to correct the cause of late decelerations by pausing the oxytocin infusion and then notify the health care provider if there is no improvement or if there are other signs of fetal distress.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) can cause eclampsia, a condition characterized by seizures and coma.Eclampsia can occur during pregnancy, labor, or postpartum.
A nurse should monitor the client for signs of increased blood pressure, headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, and hyperreflexia, which may indicate an impending convulsion.
Choice A is wrong because hemorrhage is not a common complication of PIH.
Hemorrhage may occur due to other causes such as uterine atony, lacerations, or retained placenta.
Choice B is wrong because urinary retention is not a common complication of PIH.
Urinary retention may occur due to other causes such as anesthesia, trauma, or infection.
Choice D is wrong because thrombophlebitis is not a common complication of PIH.
Thrombophlebitis is a condition where a blood clot forms in a vein and causes inflammation.
It may occur due to other risk factors such as immobility, dehydration, or injury.
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