A patient diagnosed with preeclampsia is admitted to the hospital and prescribed magnesium sulfate therapy.
What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate to this patient?
To decrease her blood pressure.
To decrease her tidal volume.
To prevent her from becoming dehydrated.
To prevent her from having convulsions.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D: To prevent her from having convulsions. Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that reduces seizure risks in women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy. Magnesium sulfate can lower the cerebral perfusion pressure and prevent convulsions. However, magnesium sulfate does not affect the neonatal outcomes and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease blood pressure. It is used along with medications that help reduce blood pressure.
Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease tidal volume. It can cause respiratory depression if the serum level is too high.
Choice C is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not prevent dehydration. It can cause fluid retention and pulmonary edema if given in excess.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Assess the client’s blood pressure.Methylergonovine is a uterotonic medication that can cause hypertension and is contraindicated for clients with preeclampsia or cardiac disease.
Therefore, the nurse should check the client’s blood pressure before administering this medication to ensure it is within normal range (120/80 mm Hg or lower).
Choice A is wrong because assessing the client’s pain scale is not a priority assessment before giving methylergonovine.
Pain is not a contraindication for this medication and does not affect its effectiveness.
Choice B is wrong because assessing the client’s respiratory rate is not a priority assessment before giving methylergonovine.
Respiratory rate is not affected by this medication and does not indicate any adverse effects.
Choice D is wrong because assessing the client’s last bowel movement is not a priority assessment before giving methylergonovine.
Bowel movement is not related to postpartum hemorrhage or uterine atony, which are the indications for this medication.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis.A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.
Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.
Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.
Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections.Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS.The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.
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