A patient diagnosed with preeclampsia is admitted to the hospital and prescribed magnesium sulfate therapy.
What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate to this patient?
To decrease her blood pressure.
To decrease her tidal volume.
To prevent her from becoming dehydrated.
To prevent her from having convulsions.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D: To prevent her from having convulsions. Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that reduces seizure risks in women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy. Magnesium sulfate can lower the cerebral perfusion pressure and prevent convulsions. However, magnesium sulfate does not affect the neonatal outcomes and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease blood pressure. It is used along with medications that help reduce blood pressure.
Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease tidal volume. It can cause respiratory depression if the serum level is too high.
Choice C is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not prevent dehydration. It can cause fluid retention and pulmonary edema if given in excess.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because urine toxicology studies can detect the presence of cocaine and other drugs in the body of the pregnant woman and her unborn baby.Cocaine use during pregnancy can have serious consequences for both the mother and the baby, such as high blood pressure, premature labor, low birth weight, and developmental problems.
Choice A is wrong because urine estriol levels are used to measure the activity of the placenta and the fetal adrenal glands.They are not related to cocaine use.
Choice B is wrong because serum bilirubin levels are used to assess the liver function and the risk of jaundice in newborns.They are not related to cocaine use.
Choice D is wrong because lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio is used to evaluate the fetal lung maturity and the risk of respiratory distress syndrome.It is not related to cocaine use.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. A patient who weighed less than 5 lb (2,268 gm) at birth is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR).This is because low birth weight is a possible indicator of genetic factors or placental insufficiency that can affect fetal growth.
Choice B is wrong because an ectopic pregnancy one year ago does not increase the risk of IUGR.An ectopic pregnancy is when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.It does not affect the placental function or fetal development in a subsequent pregnancy.
Choice C is wrong because a mitral valve prolapse does not increase the risk of IUGR.
A mitral valve prolapse is when the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart does not close properly.It usually does not cause any symptoms or complications during pregnancy, unless it is associated with severe regurgitation or arrhythmias.
Choice D is wrong because the father’s age of 42 years old does not increase the risk of IUGR.The father’s age may affect the risk of chromosomal abnormalities or congenital anomalies in the fetus, but not the fetal growth.
Some of the other risk factors for IUGR include maternal smoking, alcohol, or drug use, medical conditions like anemia or lupus, infections such as rubella or syphilis, carrying twins or multiples, high blood pressure, gestational diabetes, and placenta problems.
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