A patient with a history of mitral valve prolapse is admitted at 41 weeks gestation for induction of labor.The doctor prescribes intravenous antibiotic therapy for the patient to be given during labor.Based on this information, what is the primary reason for administering antibiotics to this patient at this time?

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease her risk of developing pericarditis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will help to decrease her risk of developing chorioamnionitis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing a systemic infection.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery. Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.

Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves. It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.

Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart. It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.

Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus. Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D. Apply petrolatum to the patient’s perineum.This is because petrolatum can help soothe and protect the perineal area, which may be swollen, bruised, or have stitches after a vaginal delivery.Applying petrolatum can also prevent the pad from sticking to the wound and causing more pain.

Choice A is wrong because observing the patient for vaginal discharge of bright red blood is not a specific action for perineal care.Bright red blood may indicate postpartum hemorrhage, which requires immediate medical attention.

Choice B is wrong because assessing the patient’s vaginal tone is not a priority action for perineal care.Vaginal tone may be reduced after childbirth due to stretching of the pelvic floor muscles, but this can improve with time and exercises.

Choice C is wrong because massaging the patient’s perineum is not recommended for perineal care.Massaging the perineum may cause more trauma and discomfort to the area, especially if there are stitches or hemorrhoids.Massaging the fundus (the top of the uterus) may be done to help it contract and prevent bleeding, but this is different from massaging the perineum.

A. Increased Babinski reflex. B. Diarrhea. C. Tetany. D. Decreased respirations.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D. Decreased respirations.Magnesium sulfate is a medication that can causerespiratory depression, which means it can slow down or stop breathing.

This is a serious side effect that needs to be monitored closely by the nurse.

Choice A is wrong because increased Babinski reflex is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate.

The Babinski reflex is a normal response in infants, but abnormal in adults.

It occurs when the big toe bends upward and the other toes fan out when the sole of the foot is stroked.Magnesium sulfate can causepoor reflexes, but not specifically the Babinski reflex.

Choice B is wrong because diarrhea is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate when given intravenously or intramuscularly.Diarrhea can occur when magnesium sulfate is taken orally as a laxative, but that is not the case in this question.

Choice C is wrong because tetany is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate.

Tetany is a condition that causes muscle spasms and cramps due to low levels of calcium in the blood.Magnesium sulfate can actually causehypocalcemia, which means low levels of calcium in the blood, but this does not usually result in tetany.Tetany is more likely to occur when there is low magnesium in the blood, which is calledhypomagnesemia.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

During the postpartal admission assessment, the nurse notes that a patient’s perineum appears edematous and ecchymotic. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A patient is receiving magnesium sulfate.Which side effect should the nurse monitor for with this patient?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client with gestational diabetes.Which guideline should the nurse use when providing nutritional counseling to this client?

A patient has been instructed to increase the protein in her diet. Which statement by the patient shows a need for further instruction?

A nurse is caring for a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks. Which finding would the nurse expect during the assessment of this newborn?

The mother of a 4-hour-old newborn reports to a nurse, “My son is producing breast milk.” The nurse’s response should be based on which understanding about newborn physiology? This is:.

A 14-year-old patient visits the antepartal clinic because she has missed three menstrual periods.The patient is to have a pelvic examination. In addition to explaining the procedure, which measure would best help reduce the patient’s anxiety?

A patient comes to the antepartal clinic for her visit and provides the nurse with information. What piece of information places this patient at high risk for exposure to teratogenic agents?

A patient’s amniotic fluid is meconium-stained. Which action should the nurse plan to take?