A patient with a history of mitral valve prolapse is admitted at 41 weeks gestation for induction of labor.The doctor prescribes intravenous antibiotic therapy for the patient to be given during labor.Based on this information, what is the primary reason for administering antibiotics to this patient at this time?
The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.
The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease her risk of developing pericarditis.
The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will help to decrease her risk of developing chorioamnionitis.
The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing a systemic infection.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery. Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.
Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves. It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.
Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart. It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.
Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus. Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Answer and explanation..
The correct answer is choice C. Jitteriness.Jitteriness is a sign of low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) which is common in infants of diabetic mothers (IDM) because they have high levels of insulin in their blood that lower their glucose levels after birth.Hypoglycemia can also cause other symptoms such as seizures, lethargy, poor feeding, sweating, trembling, and pale complexion.
Choice A is wrong because abdominal distention is not a typical symptom of IDM.
It can be caused by other conditions such as intestinal obstruction or infection.
Choice B is wrong because high-pitched cry is not a specific symptom of IDM.
It can be caused by many factors such as pain, hunger, or neurological problems.
Choice D is wrong because excessive drooling is not a common symptom of IDM.
It can be a sign of oral problems such as teething or infection.
Normal ranges for blood glucose in newborns are 40 to 150 mg/dL (2.2 to 8.3 mmol/L).
IDM should be monitored closely for hypoglycemia and treated promptly with glucose if needed.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
This is because terbutaline is a medication that can be used to suppress preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle.It can be given subcutaneously or intravenously for acute episodes of preterm labor, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of serious maternal and fetal adverse effects.Therefore, if the client’s condition stabilizes, the administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral, which has a lower bioavailability and less systemic effects.
Choice A is wrong because terbutaline is not usually self-administered parenterally by the client at home.It requires a trained health professional to give it as a shot under the skin or through a vein.
Choice C is wrong because the client does not need to remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
This is an unnecessary restriction that may increase the client’s stress and anxiety.
The client should be encouraged to have social support and emotional comfort during this time.
Choice D is wrong because the client should not ambulate in the hallway after 12 hours without contractions.
This may stimulate uterine activity and cause a recurrence of preterm labor.
The client should follow the provider’s instructions on bed rest and activity limitations.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.