A patient with a history of mitral valve prolapse is admitted at 41 weeks gestation for induction of labor.The doctor prescribes intravenous antibiotic therapy for the patient to be given during labor.Based on this information, what is the primary reason for administering antibiotics to this patient at this time?
The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.
The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease her risk of developing pericarditis.
The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will help to decrease her risk of developing chorioamnionitis.
The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing a systemic infection.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery. Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.
Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves. It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.
Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart. It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.
Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus. Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Maintaining the infants’ airways is the nurse’s priority when caring for a set of twins delivered by cesarean delivery.This is because twins are more likely to be born early and need special care after birth than single babies.They may have breathing difficulties or low oxygen levels and require oxygen therapy or ventilation.
The nurse should assess the infants’ respiratory status and intervene as needed.
Choice B is wrong because keeping the infants in a warm, draft-free environment is important but not as urgent as ensuring their airways are clear and they are breathing well.Premature twins may have trouble regulating their body temperature and need to be kept warm, but this can be done after their airways are secured.
Choice C is wrong because placing identification bands on the infants is a standard procedure but not a priority.
The nurse should make sure the infants are correctly identified and matched with their mother, but this can be done after their vital signs are stable.
Choice D is wrong because monitoring the infants’ vital signs is also important but not as urgent as maintaining their airways.
The nurse should check the infants’ heart rate, blood pressure, temperature and blood sugar levels regularly, but this can be done after their respiratory status is assessed and managed.
Normal ranges for vital signs in newborns are:
• Heart rate: 100 to 160 beats per minute
• Blood pressure: 50 to 75 mm Hg systolic and 30 to 45 mm Hg diastolic
• Temperature: 36.5 to 37.5°C (97.7 to 99.5°F)
• Blood sugar: 40 to 80 mg/dL
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet.This is because a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks is considered post-mature and has lost the protective vernix caseosa that covers the skin of most newborns.The skin of a post-mature newborn is also more exposed to the amniotic fluid, which can cause it to peel and crack.
Choice A is wrong because sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot are characteristic of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.
Choice B is wrong because vernix caseosa is abundant in preterm newborns and decreases as gestational age increases.A post-mature newborn would have little or no vernix caseosa on the skin.
Choice D is wrong because a large amount of fine, downy hair (lanugo) on the back and shoulders is also typical of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.Lanugo usually disappears by 36 weeks of gestation.A post-mature newborn would have little or no lanugo on the body.
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