A patient with a history of mitral valve prolapse is admitted at 41 weeks gestation for induction of labor.The doctor prescribes intravenous antibiotic therapy for the patient to be given during labor.Based on this information, what is the primary reason for administering antibiotics to this patient at this time?

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease her risk of developing pericarditis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will help to decrease her risk of developing chorioamnionitis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing a systemic infection.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery. Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.

Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves. It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.

Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart. It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.

Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus. Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D. Insufficient relaxation of the uterus between contractions.This is also known astachysystoleorhyperstimulation, which can cause fetal distress and uterine rupture.Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions, but it can also cause them to be too strong or too frequent if given in high doses or for too long.

Choice A is wrong because oxytocin does not decrease body temperature.

Choice B is wrong because oxytocin does not cause maternal cardiac arrhythmias.

Choice C is wrong because oxytocin does not cause urinary retention.

A. Urine estriol levels. B. Serum bilirubin levels. C. Urine toxicology studies. D. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This is because urine toxicology studies can detect the presence of cocaine and other drugs in the body of the pregnant woman and her unborn baby.Cocaine use during pregnancy can have serious consequences for both the mother and the baby, such as high blood pressure, premature labor, low birth weight, and developmental problems.

Choice A is wrong because urine estriol levels are used to measure the activity of the placenta and the fetal adrenal glands.They are not related to cocaine use.

Choice B is wrong because serum bilirubin levels are used to assess the liver function and the risk of jaundice in newborns.They are not related to cocaine use.

Choice D is wrong because lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio is used to evaluate the fetal lung maturity and the risk of respiratory distress syndrome.It is not related to cocaine use.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oxytocin injection intravenously for labor induction.The nurse should monitor this patient for which adverse effect of oxytocin?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

When a client reports using cocaine during her current pregnancy, which laboratory study should a nurse anticipate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a patient being evaluated for sexually transmitted infection (STI).A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) indicates that a patient is probably not infected with which STI?

A patient comes to the family planning clinic requesting information.Which information should the nurse obtain initially to determine the patient’s knowledge base?.

A client who had pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is now postpartum. A nurse should closely monitor this client for which complication?

A patient states, “My water just broke.” The nurse verifies that her membranes have ruptured spontaneously. Which action should the nurse take next?

When a pregnant patient has genital herpes, for which complication is the patient at higher risk than the general population?

A 23-year-old primigravida who appears to be in her third trimester of pregnancy comes to the labor and delivery unit reporting acute abdominal pain. She has had no prenatal care. Which assessment should the nurse do first?

A patient who is 33 weeks pregnant has been experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions.Which information should the nurse include in responding to this patient?

A patient with no prenatal care is admitted to the labor and delivery unit.She is placed on an external fetal monitor, and an intravenous infusion is begun. A tentative diagnosis of abruptio placentae is made.Which finding would support this diagnosis?