A patient with a history of mitral valve prolapse is admitted at 41 weeks gestation for induction of labor.The doctor prescribes intravenous antibiotic therapy for the patient to be given during labor.Based on this information, what is the primary reason for administering antibiotics to this patient at this time?

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease her risk of developing pericarditis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will help to decrease her risk of developing chorioamnionitis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing a systemic infection.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery. Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.

Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves. It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.

Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart. It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.

Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus. Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. The newborn’s nostrils flare slightly during respiration.This is a sign of respiratory distress in a newborn.

Flaring nostrils indicate that the newborn is working hard to breathe and may not be getting enough oxygen.

Choice B is wrong because the newborn’s hands and feet are blue and feel cool.This is a normal finding called acrocyanosis, which occurs due to immature peripheral circulation.

It usually resolves within 24 to 48 hours after birth.

Choice C is wrong because the newborn’s eyes move randomly when his head is turned to the side.This is a normal finding called nystagmus, which occurs due to immature eye muscles and coordination.

It usually disappears by 6 months of age.

Choice D is wrong because the newborn’s tongue thrusts forward when it is lightly touched.This is a normal finding called the extrusion reflex, which helps the newborn to suck and swallow.

It usually fades by 4 months of age.

A. Forceps-assisted second stage of labor. B. Precipitous delivery. C. Prolonged first phase of labor. D. Cesarean delivery.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D. Cesarean delivery.A pregnant patient with genital herpes is at higher risk of transmitting the infection to the baby during vaginal delivery, especially if there is an active outbreak near the time of birth.This can cause serious complications for the baby, such as brain damage, eye problems, or even death.Therefore, a cesarean delivery is recommended to avoid contact between the baby and the genital lesions.

Choice A is wrong because forceps-assisted second stage of labor is not a complication of genital herpes.

It is a method of assisted delivery that may be used for various reasons, such as fetal distress, maternal exhaustion, or abnormal presentation.

Choice B is wrong because precipitous delivery, which means a very fast labor and delivery, is not a complication of genital herpes.

It may be caused by factors such as multiparity, strong contractions, or previous rapid deliveries.

Choice C is wrong because prolonged first phase of labor, which means a slow dilation of the cervix, is not a complication of genital herpes.

It may be caused by factors such as ineffective contractions, large fetal size, or malposition.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a newborn. Which finding may indicate a problem?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

When a pregnant patient has genital herpes, for which complication is the patient at higher risk than the general population?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A patient states, “My water just broke.” The nurse verifies that her membranes have ruptured spontaneously. Which action should the nurse take next?

During the postpartal admission assessment, the nurse notes that a patient’s perineum appears edematous and ecchymotic. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse take?

A nurse is caring for a patient who is in labor and is placed on a monitor.How should the nurse determine the duration of contractions?

A nurse is caring for a newborn of a diabetic mother (IDM). What should the nurse monitor for during care of the newborn?

A 38-year-old primigravida returns to the clinic at 16 weeks gestation for an alpha-fetoprotein test.She asks a nurse, "Why do lI need this test?".Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?

The mother of a 4-hour-old newborn reports to a nurse, “My son is producing breast milk.” The nurse’s response should be based on which understanding about newborn physiology? This is:.

he nurse instructs a woman who is attending the infertility clinic about strategies designed to facilitate conception. Which statement by the patient would indicate that she understands the instructions?