A patient with a history of mitral valve prolapse is admitted at 41 weeks gestation for induction of labor.The doctor prescribes intravenous antibiotic therapy for the patient to be given during labor.Based on this information, what is the primary reason for administering antibiotics to this patient at this time?

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease her risk of developing pericarditis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will help to decrease her risk of developing chorioamnionitis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing a systemic infection.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery. Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.

Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves. It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.

Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart. It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.

Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus. Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:
At 37 weeks, especially in gestational diabetes, fetal lungs may still be immature. Amniocentesis checks lung maturity to ensure the baby can breathe effectively if early delivery is needed due to fetal compromise.

Choice B reason:
Fetal renal function is not typically assessed through amniocentesis at term. Kidney function is monitored via ultrasound, not by analyzing amniotic fluid at 37 weeks.

Choice C reason:
Amniotic fluid glucose levels are not used to manage gestational diabetes. Maternal blood glucose is the standard for monitoring and treatment.

Choice D reason:
Congenital anomalies are usually detected earlier in pregnancy. By 37 weeks, the focus of amniocentesis is on delivery planning, not anomaly detection.

A. Manually express colostrum as necessary. B. Apply hot compresses to the breasts. C. Massage the breast tissue surrounding the areola. D. Wear a supportive bra.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D. Wear a supportive bra.This will help suppress lactation and reduce the discomfort of engorgement.

The other choices are wrong because:

• Choice A. Manually express colostrum as necessary.This will stimulate milk production and prolong engorgement.

• Choice B. Apply hot compresses to the breasts.This will increase blood flow and swelling in the breasts and worsen engorgement.

• Choice C. Massage the breast tissue surrounding the areola.This will also stimulate milk production and prolong engorgement.

Normal ranges for breast engorgement are not applicable as it is a subjective experience that varies among women.However, some signs of engorgement include firm, tender, swollen breasts, flat or inverted nipples, and low-grade fever.Engorgement usually resolves within 24 to 36 hours after it begins.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has gestational diabetes and is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 37 weeks of gestation due to suspected fetal compromise. What is the nurse’s best response to the client’s question as to why the amniocentesis test is being done?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A patient has decided to bottle-feed her twins.The nurse should give this patient which instruction to help alleviate breast engorgement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client who is 22 weeks pregnant with a twin gestation comes to the clinic. The nurse instructs the client in self-care for the third trimester of pregnancy. Which statement made by the client would indicate the need for further teaching?

A client asks a nurse about breastfeeding, and the nurse discusses the topic with her. Which statement by the client indicates she needs further instruction?

A client who had pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is now postpartum. A nurse should closely monitor this client for which complication?

In planning the postpartum care of a multipara who had a normal pregnancy, labor, and delivery, which factor should be considered? The client needs to have:

A patient had an episiotomy during her delivery. Which nursing action should be included in her plan of care for the first 12 hours?

A patient who is 17 weeks pregnant shares several pieces of information with the nurse. Which statement made by the patient would indicate the patient is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)?

A client had a laparoscopic bilateral tubal ligation (BTL) in the delivery room. Which intervention should a nurse plan to include in this client’s postoperative care?