A patient with a history of mitral valve prolapse is admitted at 41 weeks gestation for induction of labor.The doctor prescribes intravenous antibiotic therapy for the patient to be given during labor.Based on this information, what is the primary reason for administering antibiotics to this patient at this time?

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease her risk of developing pericarditis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will help to decrease her risk of developing chorioamnionitis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing a systemic infection.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery. Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.

Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves. It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.

Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart. It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.

Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus. Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D: To prevent her from having convulsions.Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that reduces seizure risks in women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy.Magnesium sulfate can lower the cerebral perfusion pressure and prevent convulsions.However, magnesium sulfate does not affect the neonatal outcomes and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression.

Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease blood pressure.It is used along with medications that help reduce blood pressure.

Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease tidal volume.It can cause respiratory depression if the serum level is too high.

Choice C is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not prevent dehydration.It can cause fluid retention and pulmonary edema if given in excess.

A. Quickening. B. Uterine enlargement. C. Urinary frequency. D. Presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in blood.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D. Presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in blood.This is apositive sign of pregnancythat can only be attributed to a fetus.hCG is a hormone produced by the placenta that can be detected in blood or urine tests.

Choice A. Quickening.This is apresumptive sign of pregnancythat is based on the woman’s report of feeling fetal movements in her lower abdomen.This can occur at 16 weeks for second time moms and around 20 weeks for first time moms.However, this sign is not conclusive as other conditions can cause similar sensations.

Choice B. Uterine enlargement.This is aprobable sign of pregnancythat can be observed by the nurse or doctor through palpation.However, this sign does not mean 100% that a baby is growing in the uterus as it can be due to other causes such as fibroids or tumors.

Choice C. Urinary frequency.This is apresumptive sign of pregnancythat is based on the woman’s report of needing to urinate more often than usual.This can be caused by hormonal changes and increased blood volume during pregnancy.However, this sign is not definitive as other conditions such as urinary tract infections or diabetes can also cause frequent urination.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient diagnosed with preeclampsia is admitted to the hospital and prescribed magnesium sulfate therapy. What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate to this patient?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client is at the antepartal clinic for a pregnancy test.Which finding, if present, would be considered a positive sign of pregnancy?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A patient who is attending a family planning clinic is instructed in breast self-examination by a nurse. Which statement by the patient would indicate that she understands the instructions?

When a pregnant patient has genital herpes, for which complication is the patient at higher risk than the general population?

A nurse is caring for a patient being evaluated for sexually transmitted infection (STI).A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) indicates that a patient is probably not infected with which STI?

A patient’s labor is induced using an intravenous infusion of 1,000 mL Ringer’s lactate with 10 units of oxytocin. Two hours later, the nurse notes a pattern of late fetal heart rate decelerations detected on the fetal monitor.Which action is essential for the nurse to take first?

A nurse is caring for a newborn of a diabetic mother (IDM). What should the nurse monitor for during care of the newborn?

A patient who is 33 weeks pregnant has been experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions.Which information should the nurse include in responding to this patient?

A patient who is 37 weeks pregnant and has gestational diabetes is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for induction. The patient is placed on an external fetal monitor and receives an epidural anesthesia.Which action should the nurse take to identify a potential side effect of the epidural?