The nurse at the antepartal clinic reviews four patients’ charts.
Which patient is at increased risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
A 23-year-old primigravida with a history of endometriosis.
A 40-year-old multigravida with a history of condyloma acuminata.
A 27-year-old primigravida with a bicornuate uterus.
A 36-year-old multigravida who has had two previous cesarean deliveries.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. A 23-year-old primigravida with a history of endometriosis.Endometriosis is a condition where the tissue that normally lines the uterus grows outside of it, sometimes affecting the fallopian tubes. This can cause scarring and damage to the tubes, which can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.
Choice B is wrong because condyloma acuminata, also known as genital warts, are caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. HPV infection does not directly increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy, although it may be associated with other sexually transmitted infections (STIs) that can cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which is a risk factor.
Choice C is wrong because a bicornuate uterus is a congenital anomaly where the uterus has two horns or chambers instead of one. This does not affect the fallopian tubes or the implantation of the fertilized egg in the uterus.
Choice D is wrong because previous cesarean deliveries do not increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. However, previous tubal surgery, such as tubal ligation or salpingectomy, can damage the fallopian tubes and increase the risk.
Other risk factors for ectopic pregnancy include previous ectopic pregnancy, smoking, age older than 35 years, history of infertility, and use of assisted reproductive technology.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This means that the uterus is constantly contracted and does not relax between contractions.This can cause the placenta to separate from the uterine wall, which is called placental abruption or abruptio placentae.Placental abruption can deprive the baby of oxygen and nutrients and cause heavy bleeding in the mother.
Choice B is wrong because strong uterine contractions every 3-4 minutes are normal during labor and do not indicate placental abruption.
Choice C is wrong because bile-colored vomitus is not a sign of placental abruption, but rather a sign of hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because fetal heart rate acceleration with fetal activity is a normal finding and indicates a healthy baby.Placental abruption can cause fetal distress and a decrease in fetal heart rate.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A: To minimize the patient’s oxygen needs.
A neutral thermal environment is an environment in which a neonate maintains a normal body temperature while minimizing energy expenditure and oxygen consumption.This is important for the wellbeing of neonates, especially those who are preterm or have respiratory insufficiency.
Choice B is wrong because the conversion of glucose to lactic acid is not a desired outcome of a neutral thermal environment.This conversion occurs when there is inadequate oxygen supply to the tissues, resulting in anaerobic metabolism and metabolic acidosis.
Choice C is wrong because the absorption of surfactant from the alveoli is not affected by a neutral thermal environment.
Surfactant is a substance that reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse.It is produced by type II alveolar cells and secreted into the alveoli.
Choice D is wrong because the metabolism of brown fat stores is not a desired outcome of a neutral thermal environment.
Brown fat is a specialized tissue that generates heat by nonshivering thermogenesis in response to cold stress.
It is located in the nape of the neck, between the scapulae, and around the kidneys and adrenals.It increases the metabolic rate and oxygen consumption of neonates.
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