A nurse is caring for a patient being evaluated for sexually transmitted infection (STI).A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) indicates that a patient is probably not infected with which STI?
Herpes simplex II.
Syphilis.
Gonorrhea.
Condylomata.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis. A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.
Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.
Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.
Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections. Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS. The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
he correct answer is choice B. Sufficient perfusion and circulation of the fetus.This is because the fetal heart rate is within the normal range of 110 to 160 beats per minute, and there is moderate beat-to-beat variability, which indicates a healthy nervous system.
Choice A is wrong because insufficient perfusion of the placenta would cause fetal distress and abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, such as late decelerations or minimal variability.
Choice C is wrong because maternal hypoxia would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, unless it leads to placental insufficiency or uterine hyperstimulation.
Choice D is wrong because fetal hypoxia would cause signs of fetal distress, such as tachycardia, bradycardia, or absent variability.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. A multipara is a woman who has given birth more than once.
After delivery, the uterus contracts to return to its normal size and position.
However, in multiparas, the uterine muscles may be weaker and less able to contract effectively.
This can lead to a condition called uterine atony, where the uterus does not contract enough to prevent bleeding.
Uterine atony can also cause the uterus to descend into the vagina, which is called a prolapsed uterus.
Therefore, multiparas need frequent uterine fundal assessments to monitor the tone and position of the uterus and prevent complications.
Choice A is wrong because breast care teaching is important for all postpartum women, regardless of parity.
Mastitis is an inflammation of the breast tissue that can occur in any woman who is breastfeeding or not.
It is not more common in multiparas.
Choice C is wrong because a strict toileting schedule is not necessary for multiparas.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are caused by bacteria entering the urinary tract, usually from the urethra.
UTIs are not more common in multiparas, unless they have other risk factors such as catheterization, diabetes, or sexual activity.
Choice D is wrong because an “as needed” order for an analgesic may not be adequate for multiparas.
Pain after delivery can vary depending on the type and duration of labor, the size and position of the baby, and the use of anesthesia or episiotomy.
Multiparas may experience more pain due to stretching of the pelvic muscles and ligaments, or due to afterpains, which are contractions of the uterus that occur after delivery.
Therefore, multiparas may need regular doses of analgesics to manage their pain effectively.
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