A nurse is caring for a patient being evaluated for sexually transmitted infection (STI).A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) indicates that a patient is probably not infected with which STI?
Herpes simplex II.
Syphilis.
Gonorrhea.
Condylomata.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis. A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.
Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.
Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.
Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections. Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS. The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because a normal fetal heart rate is between 110 and 160 beats per minute, and the range of 136 to 143 indicates that the fetus is well-oxygenated and not experiencing hypoxia or acidosis. The nurse should reassure the patient and explain that fetal movement may decrease during labor due to the pressure of the contractions on the uterus and the fetus.
Choice A is wrong because asking the patient about alcohol consumption is irrelevant and insensitive.
Alcohol can affect fetal development and growth, but it does not directly affect fetal movement or heart rate.
Choice B is wrong because bloody vaginal discharge, or bloody show, is a normal sign of cervical dilation and effacement during labor.
It does not indicate fetal distress or placental abruption.
Choice D is wrong because explaining the relationship between anxiety and fetal movement does not address the patient’s concern or provide any factual information.
Anxiety can affect maternal perception of fetal movement, but it does not cause fetal movement to decrease.
The nurse should validate the patient’s feelings and provide factual reassurance.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Cesarean delivery.A pregnant patient with genital herpes is at higher risk of transmitting the infection to the baby during vaginal delivery, especially if there is an active outbreak near the time of birth.This can cause serious complications for the baby, such as brain damage, eye problems, or even death.Therefore, a cesarean delivery is recommended to avoid contact between the baby and the genital lesions.
Choice A is wrong because forceps-assisted second stage of labor is not a complication of genital herpes.
It is a method of assisted delivery that may be used for various reasons, such as fetal distress, maternal exhaustion, or abnormal presentation.
Choice B is wrong because precipitous delivery, which means a very fast labor and delivery, is not a complication of genital herpes.
It may be caused by factors such as multiparity, strong contractions, or previous rapid deliveries.
Choice C is wrong because prolonged first phase of labor, which means a slow dilation of the cervix, is not a complication of genital herpes.
It may be caused by factors such as ineffective contractions, large fetal size, or malposition.
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