A nurse is caring for a patient being evaluated for sexually transmitted infection (STI).A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) indicates that a patient is probably not infected with which STI?
Herpes simplex II.
Syphilis.
Gonorrhea.
Condylomata.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis. A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.
Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.
Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.
Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections. Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS. The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. “Have you noticed any tenderness in your breasts?”
Breast tenderness is one of the early signs of pregnancy that may occur as early as one to two weeks after conception.It is caused by hormonal changes that prepare the breasts for lactation.
Choice A is wrong because shortness of breath is not a sign of early pregnancy.It may occur later in pregnancy due to the growing uterus pressing on the diaphragm.
Choice B is wrong because episodes of loss of consciousness are not a sign of early pregnancy.They may indicate a serious condition such as anemia, dehydration, or hypoglycemia that requires medical attention.
Choice C is wrong because spotting is not a sign of early pregnancy.
It may be a sign of implantation bleeding, which occurs when the fertilized egg attaches to the lining of the uterus.However, implantation bleeding is usually much lighter and shorter than a normal period.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B.“The placenta was blocking the opening of the womb.”
This statement shows that the patient understands that placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers or is near the internal os of the cervix, which prevents a safe vaginal delivery.The patient would need a cesarean delivery to avoid bleeding and complications.
Choice A is wrong because it describes placental abruption, not placenta previa.
Placental abruption is when the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, which can cause severe bleeding and fetal distress.
Choice C is wrong because it describes a normal position of the placenta at the top of the womb.
This does not interfere with vaginal delivery and does not cause bleeding.
Choice D is wrong because it describes placenta increta or percreta, not placenta previa.
Placenta increta or percreta is when the placenta grows too deeply into or through the uterine wall, which can cause severe bleeding and damage to the uterus and other organs.
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