The newborn of a patient suspected to have used drugs during the prenatal period is admitted to the nursery.The nurse caring for the newborn notes that the infant is beginning to exhibit signs of drug withdrawal.Which action should the nurse take?
Maintain the newborn in a reverse Trendelenburg position.
Encourage family members to gently stroke the newborn’s face and head.
Swaddle the newborn in a flexed position.
Provide the newborn with visual stimulation.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Swaddle the newborn in a flexed position. This helps to reduce the symptoms of neonatal abstinence syndrome, which is what happens when babies are exposed to drugs in the womb before birth and go through drug withdrawal after birth. Swaddling can provide comfort, warmth, and security to the newborn and decrease their stress response.
Choice A is wrong because maintaining the newborn in a reverse Trendelenburg position does not help with drug withdrawal symptoms and may increase the risk of aspiration or reflux.
Choice B is wrong because gently stroking the newborn’s face and head may overstimulate the newborn and worsen their irritability and tremors.
Choice D is wrong because providing the newborn with visual stimulation may also overstimulate the newborn and increase their discomfort and agitation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. A patient who weighed less than 5 lb (2,268 gm) at birth is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR).This is because low birth weight is a possible indicator of genetic factors or placental insufficiency that can affect fetal growth.
Choice B is wrong because an ectopic pregnancy one year ago does not increase the risk of IUGR.An ectopic pregnancy is when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.It does not affect the placental function or fetal development in a subsequent pregnancy.
Choice C is wrong because a mitral valve prolapse does not increase the risk of IUGR.
A mitral valve prolapse is when the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart does not close properly.It usually does not cause any symptoms or complications during pregnancy, unless it is associated with severe regurgitation or arrhythmias.
Choice D is wrong because the father’s age of 42 years old does not increase the risk of IUGR.The father’s age may affect the risk of chromosomal abnormalities or congenital anomalies in the fetus, but not the fetal growth.
Some of the other risk factors for IUGR include maternal smoking, alcohol, or drug use, medical conditions like anemia or lupus, infections such as rubella or syphilis, carrying twins or multiples, high blood pressure, gestational diabetes, and placenta problems.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
he correct answer is choice B. Sufficient perfusion and circulation of the fetus.This is because the fetal heart rate is within the normal range of 110 to 160 beats per minute, and there is moderate beat-to-beat variability, which indicates a healthy nervous system.
Choice A is wrong because insufficient perfusion of the placenta would cause fetal distress and abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, such as late decelerations or minimal variability.
Choice C is wrong because maternal hypoxia would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, unless it leads to placental insufficiency or uterine hyperstimulation.
Choice D is wrong because fetal hypoxia would cause signs of fetal distress, such as tachycardia, bradycardia, or absent variability.
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