A patient who is at 34 weeks gestation reports having discomfort from hemorrhoids.
The nurse discusses with the patient strategies for pregnant women who have hemorrhoids.The patient returns to the clinic in 2 weeks.Which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching regarding hemorrhoid management?

I’m walking at least a mile a day.

I found taking a small amount of mineral oil each night is helpful.

I include foods high in fiber in my diet.

I’ve started to drink one extra glass of water before I have breakfast each morning.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

The correct answer is choice B. Taking mineral oil each night is not recommended for pregnant women who have hemorrhoids because it can interfere with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins and cause diarrhea, which can worsen hemorrhoids.

The patient should avoid laxatives and stool softeners unless prescribed by a health care provider.

Choice A is wrong because walking at least a mile a day can help improve blood circulation and prevent constipation, which are both beneficial for hemorrhoid management.

Choice C is wrong because including foods high in fiber in the diet can help soften stools and prevent straining, which can aggravate hemorrhoids.

Choice D is wrong because drinking one extra glass of water before breakfast each morning can help hydrate the body and prevent dehydration, which can cause hard stools and increase pressure on the anal veins.

The nurse should teach the patient other strategies for hemorrhoid management, such as applying ice packs or witch hazel pads to the affected area, using sitz baths or warm water baths, avoiding prolonged sitting or standing, and wearing cotton underwear.

The nurse should also advise the patient to report any signs of infection or bleeding to the health care provider.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis.A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.

Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.

Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.

Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.

The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections.Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS.The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.

A. Mother’s ability to tolerate the discomfort of labor. B. Fetal lie. C. Well-being of the fetus. D. Maternal readiness for labor.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nonstress test (NST) is a test in pregnancy that measures fetal heart rate and reaction to movement.Your pregnancy care provider performs a nonstress test to make sure the fetus is healthy and getting enough oxygen.It’s safe and painless, and gets its name because it puts no stress (nonstress) on you or the fetus.

Choice A is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure the mother’s ability to tolerate the discomfort of labor.A stress test is a different procedure that involves stimulating contractions and monitoring how the fetus responds.

Choice B is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure fetal lie, which is the position of the fetus in the uterus.

Fetal lie is usually determined by ultrasound or physical examination.

Choice D is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure maternal readiness for labor.A nonstress test typically happens after 28 weeks of pregnancy, when fetal heart rate starts reacting to movements.

Maternal readiness for labor is assessed by other factors, such as cervical dilation and effacement.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a patient being evaluated for sexually transmitted infection (STI).A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) indicates that a patient is probably not infected with which STI?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with a history of diabetes mellitus (T1 D) is 32 weeks pregnant.The client returns to the clinic for a scheduled ultrasound and non-stress test. What should the nurse expect the non-stress test to determine?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient has decided to bottle-feed her twins.The nurse should give this patient which instruction to help alleviate breast engorgement?

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A nurse is caring for a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks. Which finding would the nurse expect during the assessment of this newborn?

A mother of a 3-hour-old infant requests information concerning breastfeeding. The mother has tested positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).A nurse’s response should be based on which fact?

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The nurse is assigned to care for the postpartum client during her shift. The nurse knows one of the most common risk factors for early (PPH) postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. When providing care, the nurse would plan to:.