A nurse is explaining physiological jaundice to a nursing student.Which of the following should the nurse include when discussing risk factors for neonatal physiological jaundice?
African American ethnicity.
Meconium-stained amniotic fluid.
Bottle feeding.
Gestational age of 35-38 weeks.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D. Gestational age of 35-38 weeks.
This is because preterm babies are more likely to develop jaundice due to their immature liver and increased breakdown of red blood cells. Babies born between 35 and 38 weeks are considered late preterm and have a higher risk of jaundice than full-term babies.
Choice A is wrong because African American ethnicity is not a risk factor for jaundice. In fact, Asian, European, or native American ethnicity are more associated with jaundice.
Choice B is wrong because meconium-stained amniotic fluid is not a risk factor for jaundice.
Meconium is the first stool of the baby and it may indicate fetal distress, but it does not affect the bilirubin level.
Choice C is wrong because bottle feeding is not a risk factor for jaundice. In fact, breastfeeding is more associated with jaundice due to dehydration and poor caloric intake.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Cesarean delivery.A pregnant patient with genital herpes is at higher risk of transmitting the infection to the baby during vaginal delivery, especially if there is an active outbreak near the time of birth.This can cause serious complications for the baby, such as brain damage, eye problems, or even death.Therefore, a cesarean delivery is recommended to avoid contact between the baby and the genital lesions.
Choice A is wrong because forceps-assisted second stage of labor is not a complication of genital herpes.
It is a method of assisted delivery that may be used for various reasons, such as fetal distress, maternal exhaustion, or abnormal presentation.
Choice B is wrong because precipitous delivery, which means a very fast labor and delivery, is not a complication of genital herpes.
It may be caused by factors such as multiparity, strong contractions, or previous rapid deliveries.
Choice C is wrong because prolonged first phase of labor, which means a slow dilation of the cervix, is not a complication of genital herpes.
It may be caused by factors such as ineffective contractions, large fetal size, or malposition.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in blood.This is apositive sign of pregnancythat can only be attributed to a fetus.hCG is a hormone produced by the placenta that can be detected in blood or urine tests.
Choice A. Quickening.This is apresumptive sign of pregnancythat is based on the woman’s report of feeling fetal movements in her lower abdomen.This can occur at 16 weeks for second time moms and around 20 weeks for first time moms.However, this sign is not conclusive as other conditions can cause similar sensations.
Choice B. Uterine enlargement.This is aprobable sign of pregnancythat can be observed by the nurse or doctor through palpation.However, this sign does not mean 100% that a baby is growing in the uterus as it can be due to other causes such as fibroids or tumors.
Choice C. Urinary frequency.This is apresumptive sign of pregnancythat is based on the woman’s report of needing to urinate more often than usual.This can be caused by hormonal changes and increased blood volume during pregnancy.However, this sign is not definitive as other conditions such as urinary tract infections or diabetes can also cause frequent urination.
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