A nurse is explaining physiological jaundice to a nursing student.Which of the following should the nurse include when discussing risk factors for neonatal physiological jaundice?
African American ethnicity.
Meconium-stained amniotic fluid.
Bottle feeding.
Gestational age of 35-38 weeks.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D. Gestational age of 35-38 weeks.
This is because preterm babies are more likely to develop jaundice due to their immature liver and increased breakdown of red blood cells. Babies born between 35 and 38 weeks are considered late preterm and have a higher risk of jaundice than full-term babies.
Choice A is wrong because African American ethnicity is not a risk factor for jaundice. In fact, Asian, European, or native American ethnicity are more associated with jaundice.
Choice B is wrong because meconium-stained amniotic fluid is not a risk factor for jaundice.
Meconium is the first stool of the baby and it may indicate fetal distress, but it does not affect the bilirubin level.
Choice C is wrong because bottle feeding is not a risk factor for jaundice. In fact, breastfeeding is more associated with jaundice due to dehydration and poor caloric intake.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because the first priority for a pregnant woman with acute abdominal pain is to assess the fetal well-being and rule out any obstetric complications such as placental abruption, uterine rupture, or preterm labor.Fetal heart tones can indicate the presence and viability of the fetus and alert the nurse to any signs of fetal distress or hypoxia.
Choice A: Obtain a full history is wrong because it is not the most urgent action.
A full history can provide valuable information about the possible causes of abdominal pain, but it should not delay the assessment of fetal status and maternal vital signs.
Choice B: Examine the cervix for dilation is wrong because it can be harmful in some cases.A digital cervical examination should be avoided until placenta previa is ruled out by ultrasound, as it can cause bleeding and worsen the condition.
Moreover, cervical dilation alone does not indicate the cause or severity of abdominal pain.
Choice D: Palpate for uterine contraction frequency is wrong because it is not the most reliable method to assess labor.Uterine contractions can be measured by external tocodynamometry or internal intrauterine pressure catheter, which can provide more accurate and objective data than manual palpation.
Furthermore, uterine contractions do not necessarily indicate labor, as they can also be caused by other conditions such as dehydration, infection, or irritable uterus.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B.“The placenta was blocking the opening of the womb.”
This statement shows that the patient understands that placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers or is near the internal os of the cervix, which prevents a safe vaginal delivery.The patient would need a cesarean delivery to avoid bleeding and complications.
Choice A is wrong because it describes placental abruption, not placenta previa.
Placental abruption is when the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, which can cause severe bleeding and fetal distress.
Choice C is wrong because it describes a normal position of the placenta at the top of the womb.
This does not interfere with vaginal delivery and does not cause bleeding.
Choice D is wrong because it describes placenta increta or percreta, not placenta previa.
Placenta increta or percreta is when the placenta grows too deeply into or through the uterine wall, which can cause severe bleeding and damage to the uterus and other organs.
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