The physician prescribes prostaglandin (PGE2) gel for a patient being admitted for induction of labor.
Which finding would best indicate that the prostaglandin gel is effective?
The patient’s cervix is dilated.
The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced.
The patient’s cervix is softened.
The patient’s uterus is softened.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced. Prostaglandin E2 gel is used to induce labor by ripening and dilating the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions. The effectiveness of the gel can be measured by the frequency, duration and intensity of the contractions.
A stronger and more regular contraction pattern indicates that the gel is working and labor is progressing.
Choice A is wrong because cervical dilation is not the only indicator of labor induction. Cervical dilation can occur without contractions or with weak and irregular contractions, which means that labor is not established yet.
Choice C is wrong because cervical softening (or effacement) is a prerequisite for cervical dilation, but it does not necessarily mean that labor has started. Cervical softening can occur weeks before labor or even during pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because uterine softening (or relaxation) is the opposite of what prostaglandin E2 gel is supposed to do. Uterine softening reduces the contractility and tone of the uterus, which can lead to prolonged labor or fetal distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. It will be necessary for a Cesarean section when labor begins.This is because a pregnant person with herpes simplex virus (HSV) type II can pass the infection to the baby during childbirth, which can be life-threatening.A Cesarean section can lower the risk of infection by avoiding contact with the virus in the genital area.
Choice A is wrong because herpes can recur after delivery, especially if the person has a history of genital herpes before pregnancy.Choice B is wrong because weekly cultures of the herpes site are not recommended during pregnancy, as they are not reliable indicators of viral shedding or risk of transmission.Choice C is wrong because it is possible to have more than one herpes outbreak during pregnancy, especially if the person has a primary or nonprimary first-episode infection in the third trimester.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Decreased respirations.Magnesium sulfate is a medication that can causerespiratory depression, which means it can slow down or stop breathing.
This is a serious side effect that needs to be monitored closely by the nurse.
Choice A is wrong because increased Babinski reflex is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate.
The Babinski reflex is a normal response in infants, but abnormal in adults.
It occurs when the big toe bends upward and the other toes fan out when the sole of the foot is stroked.Magnesium sulfate can causepoor reflexes, but not specifically the Babinski reflex.
Choice B is wrong because diarrhea is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate when given intravenously or intramuscularly.Diarrhea can occur when magnesium sulfate is taken orally as a laxative, but that is not the case in this question.
Choice C is wrong because tetany is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate.
Tetany is a condition that causes muscle spasms and cramps due to low levels of calcium in the blood.Magnesium sulfate can actually causehypocalcemia, which means low levels of calcium in the blood, but this does not usually result in tetany.Tetany is more likely to occur when there is low magnesium in the blood, which is calledhypomagnesemia.
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