The physician prescribes prostaglandin (PGE2) gel for a patient being admitted for induction of labor.
Which finding would best indicate that the prostaglandin gel is effective?
The patient’s cervix is dilated.
The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced.
The patient’s cervix is softened.
The patient’s uterus is softened.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced. Prostaglandin E2 gel is used to induce labor by ripening and dilating the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions. The effectiveness of the gel can be measured by the frequency, duration and intensity of the contractions.
A stronger and more regular contraction pattern indicates that the gel is working and labor is progressing.
Choice A is wrong because cervical dilation is not the only indicator of labor induction. Cervical dilation can occur without contractions or with weak and irregular contractions, which means that labor is not established yet.
Choice C is wrong because cervical softening (or effacement) is a prerequisite for cervical dilation, but it does not necessarily mean that labor has started. Cervical softening can occur weeks before labor or even during pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because uterine softening (or relaxation) is the opposite of what prostaglandin E2 gel is supposed to do. Uterine softening reduces the contractility and tone of the uterus, which can lead to prolonged labor or fetal distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B.“The placenta was blocking the opening of the womb.”
This statement shows that the patient understands that placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers or is near the internal os of the cervix, which prevents a safe vaginal delivery.The patient would need a cesarean delivery to avoid bleeding and complications.
Choice A is wrong because it describes placental abruption, not placenta previa.
Placental abruption is when the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, which can cause severe bleeding and fetal distress.
Choice C is wrong because it describes a normal position of the placenta at the top of the womb.
This does not interfere with vaginal delivery and does not cause bleeding.
Choice D is wrong because it describes placenta increta or percreta, not placenta previa.
Placenta increta or percreta is when the placenta grows too deeply into or through the uterine wall, which can cause severe bleeding and damage to the uterus and other organs.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A rubella titer of 1:33 indicates a low level of immunity to rubella, which can be dangerous for a pregnant woman and her fetus.
Rubella is a viral infection that can cause birth defects or miscarriage if contracted during pregnancy.A rubella titer of 1:10 or higher is considered protective.
Choice B is wrong because a non-reactive serologic test for syphilis (STS) means that the patient does not have syphilis, which is a bacterial infection that can also harm the fetus if untreated.
Choice C is wrong because blood type A-negative does not require further assessment unless the patient has antibodies to the Rh factor, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn if the fetus is Rh-positive.
This can be prevented by giving the patient Rh immunoglobulin injections during pregnancy and after delivery.
Choice D is wrong because hemoglobin 12.2 gm/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman, which is 11 to 14 gm/dL.
Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen.
A low hemoglobin level can indicate anemia, which can affect the oxygen delivery to the fetus and increase the risk of preterm labor or low birth weight.
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