The fetal monitor indicates that a patient is having contractions every three to four minutes with late fetal decelerations.Which action should the nurse take first?
Notify the health care provider.
Position the patient in a left lateral position.
Increase the patient’s intravenous rate.
Provide the patient with oxygen via a face mask.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Position the patient in a left lateral position. This is because late fetal decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which means that the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen to the fetus. By positioning the patient on her left side, the blood flow to the placenta and the fetus is improved.
Choice A is wrong because notifying the health care provider is not the first action that the nurse should take. The nurse should first intervene to correct the cause of fetal distress and then inform the provider.
Choice C is wrong because increasing the patient’s intravenous rate may not help with uteroplacental insufficiency. It may also cause fluid overload or pulmonary edema in the patient.
Choice D is wrong because providing the patient with oxygen via a face mask is not the most effective way to increase fetal oxygenation. Oxygen therapy may be used as an adjunct to other interventions, but it is not sufficient by itself.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced.Prostaglandin E2 gel is used to induce labor by ripening and dilating the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions.The effectiveness of the gel can be measured by the frequency, duration and intensity of the contractions.
A stronger and more regular contraction pattern indicates that the gel is working and labor is progressing.
Choice A is wrong because cervical dilation is not the only indicator of labor induction.Cervical dilation can occur without contractions or with weak and irregular contractions, which means that labor is not established yet.
Choice C is wrong because cervical softening (or effacement) is a prerequisite for cervical dilation, but it does not necessarily mean that labor has started.Cervical softening can occur weeks before labor or even during pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because uterine softening (or relaxation) is the opposite of what prostaglandin E2 gel is supposed to do.Uterine softening reduces the contractility and tone of the uterus, which can lead to prolonged labor or fetal distress.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rubella immunization should be given in the early postpartum period.This is because rubella infection during pregnancy can cause serious birth defects or miscarriage, and rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy.Therefore, the best time to vaccinate a woman who is not immune to rubella is after she delivers her baby.
Choice B is wrong because gamma globulin is not effective for preventing rubella infection or congenital rubella syndrome (CRS).Gamma globulin is a preparation of antibodies that can provide temporary protection against some infections, but it does not induce lasting immunity.
Choice C is wrong because gamma globulin should not be given at the next visit for the same reason as choice B.Moreover, gamma globulin can interfere with the response to live vaccines such as rubella vaccine, so it should not be given within 3 months before or after vaccination.
Choice D is wrong because rubella immunization should not be given at the next visit or during pregnancy, as it can pose a risk to the fetus.Rubella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine that can cross the placenta and infect the fetus.The risk of CRS from vaccination during pregnancy is low, but it cannot be ruled out completely.Therefore, women who receive rubella vaccine should avoid pregnancy for at least 4 weeks after vaccination.
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