The fetal monitor indicates that a patient is having contractions every three to four minutes with late fetal decelerations.Which action should the nurse take first?
Notify the health care provider.
Position the patient in a left lateral position.
Increase the patient’s intravenous rate.
Provide the patient with oxygen via a face mask.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Position the patient in a left lateral position. This is because late fetal decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which means that the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen to the fetus. By positioning the patient on her left side, the blood flow to the placenta and the fetus is improved.
Choice A is wrong because notifying the health care provider is not the first action that the nurse should take. The nurse should first intervene to correct the cause of fetal distress and then inform the provider.
Choice C is wrong because increasing the patient’s intravenous rate may not help with uteroplacental insufficiency. It may also cause fluid overload or pulmonary edema in the patient.
Choice D is wrong because providing the patient with oxygen via a face mask is not the most effective way to increase fetal oxygenation. Oxygen therapy may be used as an adjunct to other interventions, but it is not sufficient by itself.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis.A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.
Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.
Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.
Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections.Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS.The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: “This test is used to identify fetal abnormalities.” Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein produced by the fetus that can be measured in the mother’s blood.
Abnormal levels of AFP may indicate a problem with the development of the baby’s brain, spine, or other organs.
This test is usually done between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice A is wrong because AFP does not measure the baby’s maturity.
It is not related to the gestational age or the lung development of the fetus.
Choice B is wrong because AFP is not a routine test for all pregnant women over thirty years of age.
It is an optional screening test that may be offered to women who have a higher risk of having a baby with a birth defect, such as those who have a family history, a previous affected pregnancy, or certain ethnic backgrounds.
Choice C is wrong because AFP is not recommended for people with a history of infertility.
It does not assess the fertility status of the mother or the father.
It only measures the level of a fetal protein in the mother’s blood.
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