When a client reports using cocaine during her current pregnancy, which laboratory study should a nurse anticipate?

Urine estriol levels.

Serum bilirubin levels.

Urine toxicology studies.

Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

This is because urine toxicology studies can detect the presence of cocaine and other drugs in the body of the pregnant woman and her unborn baby. Cocaine use during pregnancy can have serious consequences for both the mother and the baby, such as high blood pressure, premature labor, low birth weight, and developmental problems.

Choice A is wrong because urine estriol levels are used to measure the activity of the placenta and the fetal adrenal glands. They are not related to cocaine use.

Choice B is wrong because serum bilirubin levels are used to assess the liver function and the risk of jaundice in newborns. They are not related to cocaine use.

Choice D is wrong because lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio is used to evaluate the fetal lung maturity and the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. It is not related to cocaine use.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D: To prevent her from having convulsions.Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that reduces seizure risks in women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy.Magnesium sulfate can lower the cerebral perfusion pressure and prevent convulsions.However, magnesium sulfate does not affect the neonatal outcomes and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression.

Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease blood pressure.It is used along with medications that help reduce blood pressure.

Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not decrease tidal volume.It can cause respiratory depression if the serum level is too high.

Choice C is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not prevent dehydration.It can cause fluid retention and pulmonary edema if given in excess.

A. Once the client’s intravenous terbutaline is discontinued, she will be taught to self-administer the drug parenterally. B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral. C. The client will remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours. D. After 12 hours without contractions, the client will ambulate in the hallway.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.

This is because terbutaline is a medication that can be used to suppress preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle.It can be given subcutaneously or intravenously for acute episodes of preterm labor, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of serious maternal and fetal adverse effects.Therefore, if the client’s condition stabilizes, the administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral, which has a lower bioavailability and less systemic effects.

Choice A is wrong because terbutaline is not usually self-administered parenterally by the client at home.It requires a trained health professional to give it as a shot under the skin or through a vein.

Choice C is wrong because the client does not need to remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.

This is an unnecessary restriction that may increase the client’s stress and anxiety.

The client should be encouraged to have social support and emotional comfort during this time.

Choice D is wrong because the client should not ambulate in the hallway after 12 hours without contractions.

This may stimulate uterine activity and cause a recurrence of preterm labor.

The client should follow the provider’s instructions on bed rest and activity limitations.

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When a client reports using cocaine during her current pregnancy, which laboratory study should a nurse anticipate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient diagnosed with preeclampsia is admitted to the hospital and prescribed magnesium sulfate therapy. What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate to this patient?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client in preterm labor is managed with terbutaline. Which will a nurse need to consider in planning care for this client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client who had pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is now postpartum. A nurse should closely monitor this client for which complication?

A patient who is 17 weeks pregnant shares several pieces of information with the nurse. Which statement made by the patient would indicate the patient is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)?

In planning the postpartum care of a multipara who had a normal pregnancy, labor, and delivery, which factor should be considered? The client needs to have:

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A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oxytocin injection intravenously for labor induction.The nurse should monitor this patient for which adverse effect of oxytocin?

A client with a history of diabetes mellitus (T1 D) is 32 weeks pregnant.The client returns to the clinic for a scheduled ultrasound and non-stress test. What should the nurse expect the non-stress test to determine?

When a client reports using cocaine during her current pregnancy, which laboratory study should a nurse anticipate?

A client who is 22 weeks pregnant with a twin gestation comes to the clinic. The nurse instructs the client in self-care for the third trimester of pregnancy. Which statement made by the client would indicate the need for further teaching?